Now Reading Thread

Last week:

Kundera's The LAst Waltz
Nabokov's The Eye
Gore Vidal's Essays: Imperial America

This week:
Elmore Leonard's Pagan Babies
Chaucer--rereading Canterbury Tales. Much easier and more satisfying in the modern english translation.
Beckett--Collected Short Prose

And of course, poetry here and there. I'm trying to make this a philosophy free fortnight of reading.
 
Speedian stories
Justinian essays
Burgess - Clockwork orange
Heidegger - Mindfulness

just finished Nabokov's Lolita.
 
Justin S,
Thanks for the Heidegger recommendation; that sounds really interesting, and I think I will have to pick it up.
Derrida is great.
@Speed-The old English is the only way to read Chaucer! It may take much more time, but I think it is definitely more rewarding.

Right now, I am reading:
Kierkegaard-Works of Love
Kierkegaard-Without Authority
Kierkegaard-The Corsair Affair
M. Jamie Ferreira-Love's Grateful Striving-A Commentary on Kierkegaard's Works of Love
Homer-Odyssey Book IX (Stanford ed.)
 
J
@Speed-The old English is the only way to read Chaucer! It may take much more time, but I think it is definitely more rewarding.

Ah, ive read the old english translation and thought I was missing something. Now that I started on the modern english, Ive realized his genius for verse.
 
Ah, ive read the old english translation and thought I was missing something. Now that I started on the modern english, Ive realized his genius for verse.

I found it difficult at first, but then I tried reading it out loud and that really helps with comprehension. A lot of the phonetics are similar to present-day English, even though the spellings can be quite different.
 
rereading
5566-287-475.jpg


this is a highly recommended introduction to an important topic in the philosophy of logic, philosophy of language and metaphysics. at the heart of the issue is the paradox of the heap (or sorites paradox, from the greek word 'soros' for heap). the greek logician eubulides is credited with discovering the sorites paradox along with the liar paradox - perhaps the deepest two paradoxes there are. eubulides also discussed the sorites paradox in roughly the following form, employing the predicate 'is bald' instead of 'is a heap':

suppose we have someone with a full head of hair in front of us. say he has a million hairs distributed evenly on the top of his head. it seems clearly correct to say that he is not bald. now we pull a single hair from his scalp. it still seems correct to say that he is not bald. indeed, when we consider it, it seems absurd to think that pulling a single hair from someone's head can make that person bald. so we continue pulling hairs from his scalp one by one, each time thinking that pulling one hair can make no difference to whether he is bald or not. but at the end of this process, we will have pulled every hair on his head. so at some point it has become incorrect to say that the guy is not bald and indeed correct to say that he is bald. yet where could have made the leap from the non-bald man to the bald man? at no time did it seem that there was such a leap, but there had to be a leap somewhere, unless we accept that the head no hairs is not bald. there had to be some n number of hairs such that the person with n hairs is not bald, but the person with n-1 hairs is bald. there is thus a magic hair that divides the bald and the non-bald people.


the paradox appears to prove that the following three propositions are inconsistent:
(1) Someone with a million hairs is not bald.
(2) If someone with N number of hairs is not bald, then someone with N-1 hairs is not bald.
(3) Someone with no hairs is bald.

the problem, of course, is that these all seem true but cannot all be true. one sort of reply is to make certain revisions to what is called 'classical logic' in which (1)-(3) is really inconsistent and to show that (1)-(3) are actually consistent in this new logic. another line of reply, which was first advanced by stoic logicisns is to deny (2). but it is natural to think that (2) just characterizes 'bald' as a vague predicate and to deny it is to actually deny that 'bald' is vague.

chrysippus and other stoic logicians following him flatly denied (2) and also rejected that (2) characterizes 'bald' as vague. instead they took the vagueness of 'bald' (or 'heap') to consist in this: for some n, someone with n hairs is not bald, but someone with n-1 hairs is bald, but one cannot know which n this is. so for them vagueness is an epistemic phenomenon and has to do with certain limits in our knowledge. this sort of idea was thought to be a dead end until more recently. logicians working on the problem took for granted that something along the first line of response to the paradox has to be correct and proposed different detailed solutions along those lines. however, each such proposal seems to give rise to paradoxes similar to the original one (eg. one may want to distinguish a notion of determinate true from truth, and base the definition of validity of an argument on the notion of determinate truth rather than truth. on this way of thinking, we can say that (1) and (3) are determinately true, but (2) isn't determinately true. that would still be consistent with (2) being true - so it is consistent to take (1)-(3) to be true. however, we quickly get into trouble when we actually spell this out in detail and we can generate analogous paradoxes using the notion of being determinately bald rather than being bald. - i'm really handwaving here, as it will take a whole lot of time to actually set this out and i can't do that now.)

in his book williamson provides a short history of the problem of vagueness from ancient greece to the middle of the 20th century, and then he scrutinizes the influential theories that have been around since mid-70s to this day. his own account can be seen as a development of the stoic's epistemic solution to the paradox. his most important contribution is to render the epistemic solution more palatable by explaining why on general epistemological principles we should expect there to be limits on our knowledge exemplified by these cases.

williamson is among the best contemporary philosophers out there. he has written many papers on metaphysics, epistemology and logic. i disagree with almost every major thesis he defends in these papers and in this book. but he is very good at explaining exactly where a philosophical problem lies and laying out the land for possible solutions.

all this may sound too academic for many people here, but i suggest taking a look at this book if you can. it doesn't really require prior knowledge of formal logic and semantics, though some familiarity would be of some use. it is a much easier read than much of the stuff mentioned on this board.
 
this is a highly recommended introduction to an important topic in the philosophy of logic, philosophy of language and metaphysics. at the heart of the issue is the paradox of the heap (or sorites paradox, from the greek word 'soros' for heap). the greek logician eubulides is credited with discovering the sorites paradox along with the liar paradox - perhaps the deepest two paradoxes there are. eubulides also discussed the sorites paradox in roughly the following form, employing the predicate 'is bald' instead of 'is a heap':

suppose we have someone with a full head of hair in front of us. say he has a million hairs distributed evenly on the top of his head. it seems clearly correct to say that he is not bald. now we pull a single hair from his scalp. it still seems correct to say that he is not bald. indeed, when we consider it, it seems absurd to think that pulling a single hair from someone's head can make that person bald. so we continue pulling hairs from his scalp one by one, each time thinking that pulling one hair can make no difference to whether he is bald or not. but at the end of this process, we will have pulled every hair on his head. so at some point it has become incorrect to say that the guy is not bald and indeed correct to say that he is bald. yet where could have made the leap from the non-bald man to the bald man? at no time did it seem that there was such a leap, but there had to be a leap somewhere, unless we accept that the head no hairs is not bald. there had to be some n number of hairs such that the person with n hairs is not bald, but the person with n-1 hairs is bald. there is thus a magic hair that divides the bald and the non-bald people.


the paradox appears to prove that the following three propositions are inconsistent:
(1) Someone with a million hairs is not bald.
(2) If someone with N number of hairs is not bald, then someone with N-1 hairs is not bald.
(3) Someone with no hairs is bald.

the problem, of course, is that these all seem true but cannot all be true. one sort of reply is to make certain revisions to what is called 'classical logic' in which (1)-(3) is really inconsistent and to show that (1)-(3) are actually consistent in this new logic. another line of reply, which was first advanced by stoic logicisns is to deny (2). but it is natural to think that (2) just characterizes 'bald' as a vague predicate and to deny it is to actually deny that 'bald' is vague.

chrysippus and other stoic logicians following him flatly denied (2) and also rejected that (2) characterizes 'bald' as vague. instead they took the vagueness of 'bald' (or 'heap') to consist in this: for some n, someone with n hairs is not bald, but someone with n-1 hairs is bald, but one cannot know which n this is. so for them vagueness is an epistemic phenomenon and has to do with certain limits in our knowledge. this sort of idea was thought to be a dead end until more recently. logicians working on the problem took for granted that something along the first line of response to the paradox has to be correct and proposed different detailed solutions along those lines. however, each such proposal seems to give rise to paradoxes similar to the original one (eg. one may want to distinguish a notion of determinate true from truth, and base the definition of validity of an argument on the notion of determinate truth rather than truth. on this way of thinking, we can say that (1) and (3) are determinately true, but (2) isn't determinately true. that would still be consistent with (2) being true - so it is consistent to take (1)-(3) to be true. however, we quickly get into trouble when we actually spell this out in detail and we can generate analogous paradoxes using the notion of being determinately bald rather than being bald. - i'm really handwaving here, as it will take a whole lot of time to actually set this out and i can't do that now.)

in his book williamson provides a short history of the problem of vagueness from ancient greece to the middle of the 20th century, and then he scrutinizes the influential theories that have been around since mid-70s to this day. his own account can be seen as a development of the stoic's epistemic solution to the paradox. his most important contribution is to render the epistemic solution more palatable by explaining why on general epistemological principles we should expect there to be limits on our knowledge exemplified by these cases.

williamson is among the best contemporary philosophers out there. he has written many papers on metaphysics, epistemology and logic. i disagree with almost every major thesis he defends in these papers and in this book. but he is very good at explaining exactly where a philosophical problem lies and laying out the land for possible solutions.

all this may sound too academic for many people here, but i suggest taking a look at this book if you can. it doesn't really require prior knowledge of formal logic and semantics, though some familiarity would be of some use. it is a much easier read than much of the stuff mentioned on this board.

This is the infamous Cretan paradox is it not? Or Epimenides paradox?

Epimenides was a Cretan who made one immortal statement: "All Cretans are liars."
 
i guess this answers your questions. in the post above i said:
derbeder said:
at the heart of the issue is the paradox of the heap (or sorites paradox, from the greek word 'soros' for heap).

the paradox you are refering to (or one weak form of it) is called the liar paradox (one of a general family of paradoxes called semantic paradoxes). as epimenides formulated it, it doesn't really generate a contradiction. this is because, if the sentence

(1) all cretans are liars

is false, then it does not follow that it is true. but if (1) is true, then it follows that it is false, given what it says and given that epimenides is a cretan. all that follows is that (1) cannot be true. hence, there is no real paradox here. eubulides, however, considered a paradox properly so-called:
"A man says that he is lying. Is what he says true or false?"

The notion of lying is a little complicated, and the root of paradox has nothing to do with lying per se but with the notions of truth and falsity.
Consider:

(2) This sentence is not true.

We will take the phrase "this sentence" to refer to (2) itself. Now, suppose (2) is true. It follows that (2) is not true, since the sentence just says that (2) is not true. But then (2) is both true and not true, which is a contradiction. Suppose now that (2) is not true. But that is exactly what (2) says. Hence, (2) is also true under this supposition. But this means (2) is both true and not true under this supposition, which is a contradiction. So supposing that (2) is true leads to a contradiction, and supposing that it is not true leads to a contradiction. But then supposing that (2) is either true or not true leads to a contradiction. it seems correct to say that any sentence, including (2) is either true or not true, but we have seen that this leads to a contradiction. so what are we to make of this whole mess?

there are many standard moves made here and things immediately get technical and to explain different solutions i would have to make use of a strong mathematical theory (essentially the theory of inductive definitions). the issue seems simple, but nothing is farther from the truth.
 
i guess this answers your questions. in the post above i said:


the paradox you are refering to (or one weak form of it) is called the liar paradox (one of a general family of paradoxes called semantic paradoxes). as epimenides formulated it, it doesn't really generate a contradiction. this is because, if the sentence

(1) all cretans are liars

is false, then it does not follow that it is true. but if (1) is true, then it follows that it is false, given what it says and given that epimenides is a cretan. all that follows is that (1) cannot be true. hence, there is no real paradox here. eubulides, however, considered a paradox properly so-called:
"A man says that he is lying. Is what he says true or false?"

The notion of lying is a little complicated, and the root of paradox has nothing to do with lying per se but with the notions of truth and falsity.
Consider:

(2) This sentence is not true.

We will take the phrase "this sentence" to refer to (2) itself. Now, suppose (2) is true. It follows that (2) is not true, since the sentence just says that (2) is not true. But then (2) is both true and not true, which is a contradiction. Suppose now that (2) is not true. But that is exactly what (2) says. Hence, (2) is also true under this supposition. But this means (2) is both true and not true under this supposition, which is a contradiction. So supposing that (2) is true leads to a contradiction, and supposing that it is not true leads to a contradiction. But then supposing that (2) is either true or not true leads to a contradiction. it seems correct to say that any sentence, including (2) is either true or not true, but we have seen that this leads to a contradiction. so what are we to make of this whole mess?

there are many standard moves made here and things immediately get technical and to explain different solutions i would have to make use of a strong mathematical theory (essentially the theory of inductive definitions). the issue seems simple, but nothing is farther from the truth.

Why would you ever waste your brain power on that? It's a self-contradiction, the sentence, a lot like most of modern logic; woop-de-doo. Truly pointless philosophy without real application is worthless.
 
Έρεβος;6024415 said:
Humm ... the relativist absolutist nature of liberalism is a good one.

What in the world are you talking about? Are you talking about modern logic as in the modern form of the science of valid inferences or are you talking about something else?
 
Έρεβος;6024296 said:
Why would you ever waste your brain power on that? It's a self-contradiction, the sentence, a lot like most of modern logic; woop-de-doo. Truly pointless philosophy without real application is worthless.

Its the most famous paradox in all of philosophy. Its been around for a few thousand years for fuck sake. And I think its an excellent primer if one is interested in such fields of philosophy.
 
Έρεβος;6024505 said:

Holy shit, you're fucking worthless. Either add something constructive or stay the fuck out.
 
Έρεβος;6024819 said:
"Are you talking about modern logic as in the modern form of the science of valid inferences or are you talking about something else?"

:p

:danceboy: :kickass:
 
I started writing a reply explaining what applications have been made of the mathematical techniques that have been spawned by reflection on the liar paradox, and some central metamathematical theorems (most importantly Tarski's Theoem on the indefinability of arithmetical truth) that have been proven as a result. In a quite clear sense these should provide an answer to Έρεβος's question - mathematical applications are applications par excellence. However, I assume that what he is asking for are applications to moral and political issues and the like, and spelling out the mathematical applications won't answer that. I don't think one is unwarranted in being interested in an issue in philosophy that does not have any application to those sorts of concerns.

Έρεβος said:
It's a self-contradiction, the sentence, a lot like most of modern logic; woop-de-doo
Sounds like you know a whole lot about logic.