Dak
mentat
Devoutness isn't an empirical or concretely verifiable quality. You can't point to a Middle-Eastern cleric and say "That's devout" and point to a Muslim American family and say "That's not." They could both be devout in ways that satisfy the Quran. It comes down to interpretation. Devoutness doesn't mean a literalist interpretation of what's written in holy texts.
There's a difference between literalism in things like (to use Christian references) "the universe/earth was created in six days" and "thou shalt not kill." The former is not prescriptive. Devoutness is in behaviors. Where one is on the earth has little bearing on devoutness.....unless there's a behavior prescribed involving being in a certain place (hence Zionism, the Hajj, etc).
Until that point, sure... maybe. I won't debate that. But the Muslims he targeted were acting in accordance post-Enlightenment values (which I guess I take to be synonymous with your "modern western values," although we haven't bothered to define either) and exhibited no "key points of departure."
This is a bit of a non-starter for me, since I don't see how "key points of departure" applies to Muslim families living peacefully in either Western or non-Western countries.
We can't make any statements about those specific Muslims in NZ. Neither you nor I know anything about them. But I will refer back to the Pew survey data and point out that in nearly every Muslim majority countries, there's a clear supermajority of preference for Sharia law. Inferring from this trend, we could expect that, like the NZ shooter, there's a breaking or tipping point once there is a majority. Your argument is that this is the "wests" fault because of imperialism. I've seen these arguments and they are tenuous to say the least.
What exactly is our "long western tradition"? Does it go back to the Diaspora, when courts executed people for behaviors that today are considered perfectly acceptable? Or does it go back to the mid-1000s and the Spanish Inquisition? Does it go back to the 1950s, when Alan Turing committed suicide to avoid being imprisoned for homosexuality in a predominantly Christian country?
It may be true that Judeo-Christian religious codes of conduct were generally compatible with corresponding legal codes, but those legal codes don't really reflect the tolerance that we're attributing to the West today. So in that sense, "post-Enlightenment" doesn't work for us either. It sounds like you're taking a snapshot of the West as it exists today and projecting it back onto a centuries-old "western tradition."
Again, my point is that when religion evolves alongside democratic institutions you don't see the same support for Sharia, as is the case in Turkey, Kazakhstan, etc.
It strengthens my point because the data shows that Muslim-majority countries are compatible with values of tolerance and nonviolence if they've developed a functioning governmental apparatus that cultivates these ideals. It just so happens that such apparatuses have been prevented from functioning in many of those Muslim-majority countries by Western nations.
I'm not sure how else to say it.
You are trying to use former Soviet bloc hinterland countries as examples of countries with evolved democratic and "functioning government apparatus"? I don't even know what your criteria for this is. Does Jordan have a functioning government apparatus? Pakistan? Saudi Arabia? Turkey isn't a great counter example either:
https://www.washingtonpost.com/news...cular-turkey-sharia-is-gradually-taking-over/
The long western tradition I'm referring to is a secular legal code going back at least to, even if only symbolically, the Magna Carta. That this code has evolved is immaterial to the fact that it's a secular rather than a religious legal code, and that Sharia law is not compatible with this code, demonstrable by attempts by Muslims in various places to try and implement Sharia law alongside with (unofficially) or instead of the national secular legal code.