Ibanez 4-string bass with a pickup for 5-string bass mounted. Why?

[blackcom]

http://www.ibanez.co.jp/products/eb...5&color=CL01&year=2011&cat_id=2&series_id=472

This is a four-string bass with a pickup meant for a 5-string bass mounted. EMG 40DC for 5-string instead of an EMG 35DC for 4-string

Does anyone know what the reason might be for this, will it make the E and G strings sound "better" or anything?

I need a bass I can tune down to F# (F#, B, E, A) to play together with my 8-string guitar.

 

[ex-250]

Wide string spacing perhaps.

I have an SX 5-string with 4-string size pickups...so who knows.

 

[Rex Rocker]

Those EMG pickups have blade polepieces, so I doubt there'd be THAT big of a difference.

 

[colonel_claypoo]

Those EMG pickups have blade polepieces, so I doubt there'd be THAT big of a difference.

yeah, so it might be for looks or they couldn't get enough 35dc's from EMG haha.

 

[midget donkeys]

It's probally to make the manufacture of their basses cheaper. Stocking one part instead of two can save money when your mass producing things.

If you pay attention to a car companies models you will notice they often use many of the same parts on several models of cars for the same reason.

 

[Executioner213]

Thats probably a type-o. Why would they waste extra money, as negligible as it may be when buying parts at cost, on a more expensive pickup for something like that?

If it isn't, the only reason I can see otherwise is because the string spacing is too wide.