The Fallacy of the Individual

Planetary Eulogy said:
This is historical ignorance of the basest sort. The "social contract" was the intellectual creation of Enlightenment philosophy (specifically of Jean Jaques Rosseau), and was part and parcel of the Enlightenment construction of individualism. It was a concept that would have been alien to ANY society prior to the 18th century (and remains essentially alien to many non-Western societies even today).

the "social contract" easily predates the enlightment, as socractes himself was a staunch believer in this concept (as was his student plato). for the ancient greeks, the social contract was the fundamental basis of the city state.

Yes and no. Traditional hierarchies typically had little to do with economics, and were based on leadership and spiritual functions (which is why the spiritual and temporal leadership castes in traditional societies like Republican Rome, Han China, feudal Japan and Vedic India rarely represented the most economically successful castes).

i would like to see some examples of economically unsuccessful castes in any of these scenarios rising to positions of hierarchy, as you seem to suggest.
 
Planetary Eulogy said:
A couple of quick responses to this...

1. No one has argued that human behavior is purely genetically determined, rather, I have argued that it is a product of the intersection of genes and experience (that is, environment and circumstance).

2. Character is very much present in DNA, as it is a part of our personality matrix which itself is in many ways biologically determined.
I don't think character is biologically determined, because we havn't really changed genetically since the times human culture barely even existed. Politeness and political opinions, for example, are definitely not genetic.


If your overconsumption of pie negatively impacts society as a whole, then yes, we can and should take away your fucking pie, you fat pig.
That's not what I meant. You are arguing that free will is an illusion and therefore rights/freedom can't even exist. In my opinion, the 'will' is indeed not free but it still exists. By taking away people's rights you do limit them. Whether it is acceptable to hurt one individual for society as a whole is a different question.

There's a difference between "survival" selfishness and the selfishness of the dickhead who drives a Hummer to his office job.
What's the difference?
 
Iridium said:
Actually, according to most ecology studies, both altruism and reproduction are more prevalent instincts than survival within practically every species.
Evolution favors organisms which tend to spread their DNA most efficiently, which is for the most part done by reproducing many healthy infants or sometimes help their own kind. It doesn't mean that it is a rational thing to do.

BTW, can you link me to these studies, please? It could be very interesting
 
Iridium said:
http://www.msu.edu/course/phl/340/phl340/fall99/gifford_1/bioshe484.htm

A google search for the word "altruism" comes up with some interesting results.


they act in ways that are helpful to others at some cost to themselves

Somewhat interesting but I've seen info like it before. Reciprocal altruism is more along the lines of an investment. You expect to get paid later or the memory of good will help you if you are on hard times. Ah good 'ol free market.
I wouldn't say any of that proves a fundamental altruism.
 
the alumnus said:
the "social contract" easily predates the enlightment, as socractes himself was a staunch believer in this concept

We have no idea what kind of political philosophy Socrates espoused, since none of it is recorded. Plato's political philosophy, which he puts in the mouth of Socrates, is the antithesis of the "social contract," and calls for nothing short of absolute dictatorship. You should actually try reading The Republic, rather than reporting on its content from a position of ignorance.

the social contract was the fundamental basis of the city state.

The fundamental basis of the polis was collective identity. The "social contract" had nothing to do with it.


i would like to see some examples of economically unsuccessful castes in any of these scenarios rising to positions of hierarchy, as you seem to suggest.

Most patrician families in the Roman Republic were relatively poor, especially in comparison to the cities merchant and banker caste (who were, by law, barred from public office). Similarly, the samurai caste in feudal Japan was generally penurious (and, in fact, forbidden under the Tokugawa shogunate from even so much as possessing money).

You simply don't know what the fuck you're talking about.
 
Planetary Eulogy said:
We have no idea what kind of political philosophy Socrates espoused, since none of it is recorded. Plato's political philosophy, which he puts in the mouth of Socrates, is the antithesis of the "social contract," and calls for nothing short of absolute dictatorship. You should actually try reading The Republic, rather than reporting on its content from a position of ignorance.
you should actually try reading the statesman, rather than pretending to understand plato's political thoughts. furthermore, you might try aristotle's politics.
additionally, we know from plato that socrates valued the social contract, it was his rationalization for accepting his punishment of suicide rather than leave athens.

The fundamental basis of the polis was collective identity. The "social contract" had nothing to do with it.
see above

Most patrician families in the Roman Republic were relatively poor, especially in comparison to the cities merchant and banker caste (who were, by law, barred from public office). Similarly, the samurai caste in feudal Japan was generally penurious (and, in fact, forbidden under the Tokugawa shogunate from even so much as possessing money).

You simply don't know what the fuck you're talking about.

most of the patrician families were wealthy landowners who held masses of slaves in bondage. from those, the leaders were those who held enough money to become equestrians, and from those rose the senators. being an equestrian required huge sums of money. its obvious you don't know what the fuck you are talking about.
 
I understand that I am the product of my environment; I believe that my worth should be measured by my impact on society.

I don't blame other people. Is it the soccer moms with their SUVs or is it the top 1% with their tax breaks; is it ignorant rednecks without their GEDs or is it the televangelist on the radio and tv; is it the internet junkies or the daily news, or is it the fascist conspiracy promulgated in the pews?

Blaming other people's for pussies. This is all my fault. I should have been doing more. I'm sorry. I'll try harder.
 
you should actually try reading the statesman, rather than pretending to understand plato's political thoughts.

Only a fucking would connect ANY of Plato's works with the idea of the social contract. The social contract is explicitly a part of democratic ideology, which Plato firmly rejected (and this the "democracy" of the Athenian polis, itself a democracy based on the ideal of collective rather than individual autonomy). Plato called for a dictatorship of natural ability (that is, a philosopher king) and argued that the state must control all aspects of its citizens' lives (down to what types of music should be allowed in public) to ensure proper thought and behavior. Plato, like his follower Aristotle (of whom more later), felt that most people lacked the proper intelligence or discipline to govern themselves, and thus must be governed instead by those who do possess those skills (this is why Plato remains a favorite of many who espouse authoritarian ideals, and why Plato himself, despite his Athenian origins, favored the Spartan model of government to that of his own polis).


In any event, there is no concept in ANY ancient philosopher's writings that just power is derived from the consent of the governed, which is the cornerstone of "social contract" theory. The consensus of ancient society was that just authority is derived, not from the consent of the governed, but the approval of the gods (or the universe, if you will) as signified by success in claiming the reigns of power.

furthermore, you might try aristotle's politics.

You might try looking at the discussion of the concept of "slaves by nature" in that very work before trying to tie it through some insane flight of fancy to the Englightenment conceit of the "social contract." Aristotle, like Plato, was an authoritarian who not only rejected the notion that men could be trusted to self-government, but served as a tutor and political advisor to the man who destroyed the Greek democracies.

additionally, we know from plato that socrates valued the social contract, it was his rationalization for accepting his punishment of suicide rather than leave athens.

The entire Apology is a mocking send up of the whole misbegotten idea of democracy, and lays bare what it really is, rule by the mob. Sorcates doesn't argue for the justice of consensual power (social contract), he argues against the injustice of the mob.

Now please, stop embarassing yourself by speaking as an authority on things you clearly do not understand.
 
Planetary Eulogy said:
Only a fucking would connect ANY of Plato's works with the idea of the social contract. The social contract is explicitly a part of democratic ideology, which Plato firmly rejected (and this the "democracy" of the Athenian polis, itself a democracy based on the ideal of collective rather than individual autonomy).
no it isn't.

Plato called for a dictatorship of natural ability (that is, a philosopher king)
apparently you haven't read statesman. plato flatly refutes his previous paradygm of the philosopher king.
Plato, like his follower Aristotle (of whom more later), felt that most people lacked the proper intelligence or discipline to govern themselves, and thus must be governed instead by those who do possess those skills (this is why Plato remains a favorite of many who espouse authoritarian ideals, and why Plato himself, despite his Athenian origins, favored the Spartan model of government to that of his own polis).
aristotle defined governments as being of 3 classes, of which there were 2 types of each. thus for him democracy wasn't inherently evil, but rather it dissolved into mob rule, which was. try reading aristotle's politics a rather good read
In any event, there is no concept in ANY ancient philosopher's writings that just power is derived from the consent of the governed, which is the cornerstone of "social contract" theory. The consensus of ancient society was that just authority is derived, not from the consent of the governed, but the approval of the gods (or the universe, if you will) as signified by success in claiming the reigns of power.
where did i ever say "consent of the governed"? apparently you do not understand the concept of the social contract. for the ancient greeks, one lived in a city "polis" because of the inherent benefits, which outweighed the defecits. the government (monarchy, aristocracy, or democracy) provided benefits. in return it makes demands, in the case of socrates it was his death by suicide.

You might try looking at the discussion of the concept of "slaves by nature" in that very work before trying to tie it through some insane flight of fancy to the Englightenment conceit of the "social contract." Aristotle, like Plato, was an authoritarian who not only rejected the notion that men could be trusted to self-government, but served as a tutor and political advisor to the man who destroyed the Greek democracies.



The entire Apology is a mocking send up of the whole misbegotten idea of democracy, and lays bare what it really is, rule by the mob. Sorcates doesn't argue for the justice of consensual power (social contract), he argues against the injustice of the mob.

Now please, stop embarassing yourself by speaking as an authority on things you clearly do not understand.

as stated before, you clearly didn't read aristotle or plato (or seneca or other greeks) or you wouldn't make such foolish and nonsensical statments. you clearly don't understand aristotle. for him all virtuous governments (monarchy, aristocracy, democracy) degraded into perverted forms (despotism, oligargy, mob rule), one replacing the other in a cyclical fashion.
 
the alumnus said:
no it isn't.

Evidence? Oh wait, you don't have any, because there IS no evidence to support your conclusions, since they aren't based on the actual history of any of the polis states.

apparently you haven't read statesman. plato flatly refutes his previous paradygm of the philosopher king.

1. The central argument of The Statesman is that society is best served by the rule of the wise statesman (that is, by the rule of a philosopher king). In particular, it rejects the rule of law (one of the basic tenets of social contract theory) in favor of the more flexible and personal rule of the statesman. It expands on the ideas of The Republic

2. If you're going to try and keep up with the big dogs in terms of vocabulary usage, you might want to learn to actually spell the terms you toss out.

aristotle defined governments as being of 3 classes, of which there were 2 types of each. thus for him democracy wasn't inherently evil, but rather it dissolved into mob rule, which was.

Correct, which is why he argued against democratic rule and favored oligarchic systems. Arguing that democracy is not inherently bad is not the same thing as arguing that democracy is the best system of government. Try again.

where did i ever say "consent of the governed"?

Social contract theory is the idea, not that people benefit from government (as you seem to think it is), but rather the idea that just government is derived from the consent of the governed (who agree to give up certain liberties in exchange for order established by a government.

That people exchange a certain amount of liberty for safety is not in and of itself the theory of the social contract, this is a more basic principle extending to all theories of government. Social contract theory specifically refers to the Enlightenment notion that just government is derived from the consent of the governed, and this is idea alien to Classical Greek civilization.



as stated before, you clearly didn't read aristotle or plato (or seneca or other greeks) or you wouldn't make such foolish and nonsensical statments. you clearly don't understand aristotle. for him all virtuous governments (monarchy, aristocracy, democracy) degraded into perverted forms (despotism, oligargy, mob rule), one replacing the other in a cyclical fashion.

1. And he also argued that of these systems, democracy and monarchy are the most likely to decay into their least desirable expressions, and that aristocratic/oligarchic systems (such as those of Carthage or Republican Rome) were thus the best practical means of organizing the state.

2. Seneca was a Stoic who, again, was uninterested in the consent of the governed concept so central to social contract theory. Indeed, he was a proponent of unrestricted monarchy who served as chief advisor to the Emperor Nero. You need to stop name dropping if you're not going to accurately depict the philosophies of the names you drop.
 
Planetary Eulogy said:
1. The central argument of The Statesman is that society is best served by the rule of the wise statesman (that is, by the rule of a philosopher king).
again, you are incorrect. try actually reading these books instead of pretending to know about them. plato decided that philosophers had better things to do than be kings.

In particular, it rejects the rule of law (one of the basic tenets of social contract theory) in favor of the more flexible and personal rule of the statesman. It expands on the ideas of The Republic
it corrects the idea of the republic and introduces the idea of the statesman and the values he needs to be effective.

Correct, which is why he argued against democratic rule and favored oligarchic systems. Arguing that democracy is not inherently bad is not the same thing as arguing that democracy is the best system of government. Try again.
i never said that aristotle claimed democracy is the best system of government. try again.

Social contract theory is the idea, not that people benefit from government (as you seem to think it is), but rather the idea that just government is derived from the consent of the governed (who agree to give up certain liberties in exchange for order established by a government.

That people exchange a certain amount of liberty for safety is not in and of itself the theory of the social contract, this is a more basic principle extending to all theories of government. Social contract theory specifically refers to the Enlightenment notion that just government is derived from the consent of the governed, and this is idea alien to Classical Greek civilization.

you may be confusing two different ideas, because the greek notion of the social contract was that residing inside the polis had pros and cons. these pros and cons were a social contract; that is to say that if one agreed to the benefits of living in a polis (security from invaders) than one must also accept its consequences (being sentenced to death). this we learn from socrates through the mouthpiece of plato.

2. Seneca was a Stoic who, again, was uninterested in the consent of the governed concept so central to social contract theory. Indeed, he was a proponent of unrestricted monarchy who served as chief advisor to the Emperor Nero. You need to stop name dropping if you're not going to accurately depict the philosophies of the names you drop.

again, try reading seneca. he valued the roman republic above all governments because it combined all 3 types of government described by aristotle. you need to stop pretending that you've read these authors, because its quite obvious that you haven't.
 
the alumnus said:
again, you are incorrect. try actually reading these books instead of pretending to know about them. plato decided that philosophers had better things to do than be kings.

I HAVE read it, you clearly haven't (given that you argue it is based on the Enlightenment theory of the social contract and that it somehow is a departure from The Republic, which any competent reader can see it is neither).

And, interestingly, I note that you still haven't provided any evidence to support your assertions that Statesman is based on the principle of social contract nor that Plato argues against the basic model previously proposed in The Republic.


it corrects the idea of the republic and introduces the idea of the statesman and the values he needs to be effective.

It corrects nothing, and is purely a continuation of the political ideas explored in The Republic. The "wise statesman" of Statesman is not in any way functionally different from the philosopher king of The Republic, and elsewhere, the dialogue expands on Plato's ideal of an aristocratic system of government.

you may be confusing two different ideas, because the greek notion of the social contract was that residing inside the polis had pros and cons. these pros and cons were a social contract; that is to say that if one agreed to the benefits of living in a polis (security from invaders) than one must also accept its consequences (being sentenced to death). this we learn from socrates through the mouthpiece of plato.

No, here's the problem. You're conflating any acknowledgment that the State is a compromise between liberty and order with the Enlightenment theory of social contract, which is much more involved and derives explicitly from the writings of Rosseau (this theory involves a far greater degree of reciprocity and responsiveness, and a very different conception of the relationship of just government to the individual). You are further using this to anachronistically ascribe to Classical society and philosophers a concept of individualism firmly rooted in the Englightenment, which is ignorant at best and deliberately mendacious at worst.
 
The thread is losing focus as rapidly as logic. In my reply, I'll attempt to put things into an argumentative perspective rather than a battle between claims to factual information. Since liberalism has been miscontrued and misrepresented quite frequently, it has been outlined as a means to settle the issue mentioned below, and it is hoped that the length of the post be forgiven on grounds of its relevance.


The resolution of the argument lies in the resolution of one central issue, one that deals with how the granting of certain individual liberties on grounds of both principle and pragmatism is imperative and thus the restriction of the extent to which the exercise of power is justifiable, followed by a comparison of totalitarian and liberal societies.

I'll deal with the justification or otherwise, in principle, of government interference in individual acts first, followed by the utility of the proposed non-interference.

Acts are broadly divided into two categories: those that concern the interests of no one but the individual perpetuating them (self-regarding acts), and those that concern the interests of people other than the performing individual (social acts). In the case of the former, the government is in principle unjustified in interference; in the case of the latter, it is completely justified. The basis for the principles just mentioned are perhaps the core of the contention.

The basis, outlined repeatedly in liberal literature, is that mature individuals are in a position to judge their own benefit better than any external party, owing to their being aware of the circumstances and consequences and their consequent reactions to them better than any such party (usually the government). Misapplication of generalized doctrines to individuals are probable, owing to the differences inherent in the circumstances and dispositions of people.

To deprive these individuals of the means to judge for themselves is to assume that the intervening party will necessarily be a better judge. In barbaric nations, the assumption may always hold true, which is why 'there is nothing for them but implicit obedience to an Akbar or a Charlemagne, if they are so fortunate as to find one' (J.S. Mill). Further, nations facing obstacles so great that overcoming them may be a goal unattainable except without the single-handed guidance of a capable leader are justified in adopting totalitarian regimes, and for the same reason, modern dictators claiming to prepare countries for democratic rule are tolerated.

It is fair to restrict the debate to nations which are closest to ideal liberalism, since it is on these that the charges were levied by the author. All such nations are neither barbarians nor faced with any obstacles that cannot be handled by the present mode of government. There is, therefore, no justification in principle for the exercise of power in issues relating to purely self-regarding actions as far as these nations are concerned.

In classical liberal policy, the government may employ education, disuassion and discouragement as means of warning individuals against what they consider a decision for their own good, but no more. While it is not contested that certain individuals will make illogical and harmful decisions, it is argued 'that all errors committed against persuasion and discouragement are far outweighed by the evil of constraining one to what others think is good.'

The argument against restrain beyond a certain point is strengthened upon further consideration. On issues of social conduct and morality, public opinion or that of someone representing the public interests (in totalitarian regimes) is more probable than not to be right since such issues involve directly the interests of the deciding member(s) of society. However, on issues of personal self-regarding conduct, the legislation of external parties is at best an imposition on the individual of what others believe to be correct or utilitarian, and at worst bringing into conformity with oneself the acts of others. This last example is exhibited well in history. The calls for a nation-drive against Mormonism, which embraced polygamy, in late 19th century England is perhaps the most cited in favour of liberalism. While tolerating Muslims, Hindus and the Chinese, the British set out on campaigns to hunt down self-exiled Mormons. As long as the proposed institution of marriage is voluntary in nature and as long as the Mormon community allows for the discharge of those who disagree, there is no case against them and their existence should continue unhampered by society, though the persistence of disapproval is justified.

The granting of liberties finds an even more solid footing on utilitarian grounds.

To subject individuals to either popularly decided customs or modes of action deduced from the dictation of totalitarian regimes as the only possible methods to be employed is damaging: firstly, recorded experience may be too narrow or improperly interpreted, and using it to enforce upon individuals infringements of liberty as a means for their betterment is likely to be flawed. Secondly, such policies may be tailored for customary circumstances and dispositions, and a person may differ from the custom. Further, the strengthening of the mental faculties of man lies in making responsible decisions, and the decision of the state to disallow the same merely weakens the faculty of reason in man, in addition to treating him in a manner identical with the manner in which children or mentally incapable people are treated.

The maintenance of genius and originality requires such freedom. Conformity, therefore, halts progress, and conformity is a necessary consequence of the proposed methods of control, if not a purpose. It also guards effectively against mediocrity in totalitarian regimes, a possibility proponents of any form of totalitarianism conveniently ignore.

Pertinent examples, perhaps, of nations in slump owing to mass conformity are many Islamic States. While rich in culture and historically parallel in development to much of the west, these have been dulled by conformity owing to the repressive penetration of ideologies designed to induce conformity. While it is not claimed that the parity between the East and West is a consequence of this one circumstance, the contribution of it to the existing state of affairs is definitely maintained.

In general, liberalism would argue and I would agree that in matters concerning purely personal acts which do not involve the interests of others, individual liberty is not only essential in principle, it is also yeilds the most utility.

I believe the very first objection raised, that of it being essential to society that 'selfish impulses' be restrained, has been satisfactorily answered by demonstrating that granting these selfish impulses is a method that favours both principle and utility.

Prior to any argument concerning social theory, I believe it is imperative the goal of the proposed measures be outlined. Taking the lead from you, I have assumed the goal to be the continued existence of society in a state where the benefits of all individuals are increased to a maximum. The goal, however, for many people is on a completely parallel footing: people would argue for and against power systems purely on the basis of the legal justification of either. The introduction of the social contract into the argument was an attempt to defend liberalism on such grounds.

While it is undoubtedly arguable whether the social contract precedes Enlightenment thought or not, it is highly irrelevant to the subject at hand to argue the historical standing of the contract. What is relevant is the fact that the basis for modern society in the cases under consideration, the American and French revolutions and the consequent adoption of liberalism as an irreplacable ideology, took into account the social contract as detailed by Rousseau. Owing to difficulties in the enforcement of the contract as a legal proceeding (such as the absence of any alternatives to individuals if they wish not to abide by it or the inability of an individual to enter into an agreement prior to maturity and the consequent responsibility thrust onto society for his support in those years), the only manner in which it can be best realised is by its inclusion into revolutionary thought that framed modern society. The American and French constitutions drafted after the revolutions included in them a great sense of this responsibility of society towards individuals in exchange for letting go of certain liberties, and thus to argue that the social contract is the basis for modern society is most certainly far removed from being 'ignorance of the basest sort'. Perhaps what can justifiably be deemed outrageous, as is admitted, is the claim that it forms the basis for all society that has existed, and the claim is withdrawn.

The argument, therefore, that the exercise of power is not justified beyond what the social contract would permit, stands tall. It is emphasized, however, that this argument is neither central nor necessary to touch upon further, since the issue has been handled on grounds closer to those upon which the refutations were based.

It is also my intent to clarify that modern liberal society is by no means an ideal representation of liberal society. Modern society undoubtedly stifles freedom more than it ought to as per the arguments detailed, and in as much as it does so, it is unjustified. However, it is assumed understood that the deficiences of governments in the implementations of liberal policy are not equivalent to deficiences within liberalism itself.

It was claimed that liberal society is an end unto itself, that it will self-destruct. I'll reserve my comments on a claim as foolish as this till it is substantiated, for the case has been otherwise. Also, egalitarianism, multiculturalism and consumerism were cited as occurrences in a liberal society that are inevitable and mutable only through a change in political ideology. As far as egalitarianism is concerned, I would like it to be elaborated how it is a development harmful to society. Multiculturalism, while arguable in its impact as being for the betterment or otherwise of society, is hardly a development interlinked necessarily to liberalism. Britian pursues official monoculturalism, and the United States pursues a 'melting pot' doctrine - it allows for the amalgamation of cultures without state intervention. Infact, Diane Ravitch has argued in Illiberal Education how the doctrine of multiculturalism and liberalism stand on opposite poles. Lastly, consumerism is, I must admit, a consequence of liberalism much abhorred universally. However, my argument is still a long way from being weakened by such an allowance: firstly, even if consumerism were incurable, it would an abuse of a freedom that others may use equally purposefully, and the analogy is of a knife which can chop both vegetables and human beings, but disallowing it on the basis of the latter is ridiculous. Secondly, the curative mechanism usually proposed by liberalism is that of social disapproval and discouragement, perhaps even government sponsored disuassion, but nothing beyond it. It is arguable and remains to be seen whether the mechanism is effective is this case or not, but it certainly is a tool one would much prefer to outright infringements on liberty.

Also, your claims that the radicalization of liberal democracy are bound to end in disaster are also highly speculative and based on little fact. I would like an elaborate elucidation of the claim and the its workings towards disaster before I busy myself with the subject.

In addition, I would like to comment on your suggestions to improve the current state of affairs for the better. You propose a shift away from tradition. I continue to contend that tradition typically favours a form of government that you propose, one that dictates to it citizens affairs that lie in the domain of the individual. The feudalism rampant in Europe throughout the middle ages, the formation of nation-states characterized by the conflicts between the 'monarchy, aristrocratic fuedal lords and the church' (all three forms of individual subjugation), the dynasties in China, the Valley Civilizations of the sub-continent, Russia prior to the Decembrist Revolt in 1825 with its autocratic power distribution (specially under Catherine) and other innumerable examples stand unchallenged against your nit-picked examples from history where liberal policies were adopted as an exception and consequence of greater civilization (at least such was the case in Vedic India and Republican Rome). Your mechanism for reform, therefore, is achieving about as much as your digressions on Roman history and Socrates: nothing.

With regard to economic policy and the linkage of capitalism with liberalism: Since trade is an act that affects all participating members of society and thus a social rather than self-regarding act, its regulation by the imposition of a restraint for the general betterment of people is a justifiable regulation. While economics would show that free markets with no government intervention function best, the granting of liberty is just a corollary privilege of a policy that works best, and it is essential only on grounds of such a policy being economically beneficial rather than it being an obligation of a liberal society.

To sum up my argument, I'd choose an issue that popped up somewhere and was ridiculously handled before it disappeared into the realm of forum messages. Someone argued that just because one's desire to eat a pie is dictated by one's biological composition (genes, I believe, was the term used), it cannot be taken away. The reply thundered that if it harms society, it most certainly should. Both standpoints are entirely correct, they can be reconciled with one another and are both the two maxims that are central to liberalism.

The individual is granted the freedom to follow the selfish impulse of eating a pie, irrespective of whether it is dictated by genes, circumstance or mature mental decisions taking into account both. Infact, the origins of one's desire are of no concern to this argument, and by referring to 'will', one is referring to what one desires irrespective of why one desires it - doing so, as has perhaps been done, is stepping out of sociology and into biology.

Returning to the example: the individual is granted the freedom to follow this selfish desire of his, as long as it does not infringe upon the interests of others. If his eating a pie harms society, it is most definitely justified for the government to interfere.
 
Here's the problem though, your whole argument rests on assumptions that are not only wholly arbitrary, but demonstratably false. There can be no genuine distinction drawn between "self-regarding" and "social" acts. Humans do not exist in a vacuum, but rather in a social matrix. The result of this is that all human actions have social consequences, and thus must rightly be understood as "social" acts. As a result, any system (such as liberalism) rooted in the false duality of "self-regarding" and "social" acts (and which, further, is based on arbitrarily assigning some sort of metaphysical sanctity to the non-existent "self-regarding" acts) is fundamentally flawed.

There are additional problems with your argument (there are quite a few problems which governments rooted in liberalism are structurally incapable of dealing with effectively, such as overconsumption and global warming), but there's no reason to waste time dealing with each of these individually having already demolished the basic assumption from which all your other points are derived.
 
I thought this point was interesting enough to deal with seperately...

To sum up my argument, I'd choose an issue that popped up somewhere and was ridiculously handled before it disappeared into the realm of forum messages. Someone argued that just because one's desire to eat a pie is dictated by one's biological composition (genes, I believe, was the term used), it cannot be taken away. The reply thundered that if it harms society, it most certainly should. Both standpoints are entirely correct, they can be reconciled with one another and are both the two maxims that are central to liberalism.

In theory, this is true. In practice, however, the liberal devotion to consensual government makes it extremely difficult (and often impossible) to regulate destructive behaviors once those behaviors reach a critical mass of practitioners (which is why Western democracies allow drinking, smoking and the possession of Hummers by private citizens). And this is one of the fundamental problems facing liberal democracy, its impotence in the face of popular but destructive behavior patterns.
 
Your first argument, that acts are not as clearly divided into categories as liberalism would have you believe, is in part a consequence of my decision to leave matters of jurisdiction out of my previous post. Your refusal to take up a mature stance instead of nit-picking on technicalities, however, would mean further elaboration is necessary.

Though the division of acts that I based the liberalist agenda on is by all means a region decidedly grey and difficult to tread on, a refusal to acknowledge a distinct categorization is evading a task quite achievable.

In short, whenever an act that is assumed to concern oneself only impacts the interests of others - specially in cases where it poses a risk of damage or definite damage to other individuals - it is taken out of the realm of liberty and into that of legitimate authority. For instance, liberals would argue that drunkennes is a self-regarding act and that the government has no right to a prohibition. Your standpoint would contend that it impacts the dependents of those who indulge, as well as occasionally and sometimes even frequently causing violence and crime. Your argument, when viewed with respect to consequences, is entirely accurate. However, your consequent attacks on the cause are unjustified: if the individual is accountable, he is accountable for not attending to those who are legally dependent on him, or for creating disorder, not for drinking. There is no social evil associated with drinking itself, however a drunk soldier on duty may legitimately be penalised for negligence, because his actions have now abandoned liberty and tread in spheres of social responsibility.

Similarly, borrowing again from Mill, extravagance is not in itself a social evil. Consequently, an extravagant man who is unable to pay off his debts may be penalised for the non-payment of debts but not for extravagance, because there may be extravagant men who do pay off all debts. The case gains more ground on observing that had the non-payment been a consequence of investment elsewhere, the act of not paying one's debts would be equally punishable.

The purpose of the examples was simply to show that it is indeed possible to limit legislation on the basis of the impact of certain actions. Volumes exist on justifiable jurisdiction on almost all issues that arise in modern society. To enlist them would be sheer stupidity; it is therefore insisted that particular issues you find falling into no category be mentioned and treated in this thread.

It is further admitted the absolute classification of acts into two defined categories is an impossibility; however, to expect the same from a socio-political system is Utopian and idealistic, contrary to the pragmatic approach you wish to adopt. The choice of a system relies not in its perfection but in its relative utility. And it is argued that liberalism does indeed stand the test among existing systems, that the classification of acts is possible to the extent that is necessary for governing a people, and that it is on higher grounds in terms of utility.

Your second argument, that popular government is incompatible with liberalism and yet a favourite with liberals, is a skewed perspective of the issue. Liberalism recognises in entirety the problem of popular decision-making, and it is solely on this basis that it demands a safeguard of individual rights through the law (as has been previously mentioned by someone arguing against it). Through declaring it constitutionally unacceptable to infringe upon a set of agreed upon individual rights, it ensures that motivated, self-interested majorities do not infringe upon such liberties.

If liberal Western democracies were to prohibit either drinking or smoking in private, it would be an infringement upon liberties that such governments otherwise uphold, for reasons I believe are plain by now. It is, however, entirely justified to declare smoking in public areas illegal because of the extension of its impact beyond the individual and onto society, and many such liberal democracies including the United States do so. Similarly, it is justifiable to declare drinking and driving illegal because of the very same reason: the impact of an originally self-regarding act now extends to society as posing the risk of damage. Consequently, it is disallowed in most - if not all - liberal nations.

It may also be argued that the state is bound to the betterment of its citizens, and to expect it remain aloof from all that has so casually been termed 'self-regarding' is an unjust expectation. The argument, however, is countered by understanding the impact of the society on the individual better. Society has powerful means to influence the individual to behaviours it considers appropriate. It has, to a great extent, the control of the education being imparted (and indeed, sex education and alcohol awareness programs in schools and universities do exist as an attempt to limit drunkeness and promiscuity). It also has the disapproval of those who consider this behaviour destructive, which sometimes amounts even to discrimination. To pretend to need besides all this the use of force is ridiculous. Further, if an individual, despite the influence society exerts upon it, continues indulging in that which is legal but socially unacceptable, he deserves to do so - being the only person suffering the consequences of his self-regarding actions, he should at least be afforded the liberty to decide for himself.

Lastly, the issue of whether or not representative, consensual goverment is inherently flawed in its ability to rule against 'popular but destructive behaviour patterns'. Firstly, it needs to be understood that only issues the government ought to be empowered to rule upon are relevant here. Secondly, the issue is much more case-specific than general, and examples will have to be employed if one ever hopes to persuade. And thirdly, it is not denied that representative government is beyond any inherent flaws. However, given that the utility and justification of the proposed system of liberal democracy far outweighs that of any other existing system, it is a natural preference. Unless the contrary is established through comparitive analysis, random attacks on a system that those arguing against it fail to recognize is the basis of much freedom to converse will achieve little. While I tread on the irritable grounds of cliched and hackneyed catch-phrases when I say so, I am compelled to reiterate that flaws with countries in adopting liberal democracy are not necessarily flaws with the system of liberal democracy.
 
It's not "nit-picking," there is no distinction AT ALL between "self-regarding" and "social" acts. The nature of human life and society makes all human action "social" acts and thus, by your own admission, fair game for state regulation. Your entire argument requires that it be possible to distinguish between "social" and "self-regarding" acts, as this is not so, you are left arguing for the morality and utility of that which does not exist. In other words, you make no argument at all.
 
Nice side-stepping. If you had been magnanimous enough to read my post, I'm sure the case would have been otherwise, you moron.

In short, whenever an act that is assumed to concern oneself only impacts the interests of others - specially in cases where it poses a risk of damage or definite damage to other individuals - it is taken out of the realm of liberty and into that of legitimate authority. For instance, liberals would argue that drunkennes is a self-regarding act and that the government has no right to a prohibition. Your standpoint would contend that it impacts the dependents of those who indulge, as well as occasionally and sometimes even frequently causing violence and crime. Your argument, when viewed with respect to consequences, is entirely accurate. However, your consequent attacks on the cause are unjustified: if the individual is accountable, he is accountable for not attending to those who are legally dependent on him, or for creating disorder, not for drinking. There is no social evil associated with drinking itself, however a drunk soldier on duty may legitimately be penalised for negligence, because his actions have now abandoned liberty and tread in spheres of social responsibility.

Similarly, borrowing again from Mill, extravagance is not in itself a social evil. Consequently, an extravagant man who is unable to pay off his debts may be penalised for the non-payment of debts but not for extravagance, because there may be extravagant men who do pay off all debts. The case gains more ground on observing that had the non-payment been a consequence of investment elsewhere, the act of not paying one's debts would be equally punishable.

The purpose of the examples was simply to show that it is indeed possible to limit legislation on the basis of the impact of certain actions. Volumes exist on justifiable jurisdiction on almost all issues that arise in modern society. To enlist them would be sheer stupidity; it is therefore insisted that particular issues you find falling into no category be mentioned and treated in this thread.

It is further admitted the absolute classification of acts into two defined categories is an impossibility; however, to expect the same from a socio-political system is Utopian and idealistic, contrary to the pragmatic approach you wish to adopt. The choice of a system relies not in its perfection but in its relative utility. And it is argued that liberalism does indeed stand the test among existing systems, that the classification of acts is possible to the extent that is necessary for governing a people, and that it is on higher grounds in terms of utility.