Misconception about Modes over chords (guitarist point of view)

H-evolve

Member
Apr 21, 2014
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Montreal, Canada
Hi all,

There is something I have been reading here, and also at other locations, and it doesn't make sense. I think they is some kind of misconception about the use of modes. I am a guitar player, like many people here I guess, but it probably applies to others I guess. Also, I am not a professional, so this here is my point of view and I write it here so that it can be discussed. And yes, I know modes are discussed a hell lot, but as I said, I saw stuff on this forum that I kinda disagreed with.

The thing is, I have read often that, if you have a certain chord progession (chord progession in Gmaj) that goes:G, Bm, D7, G. Some people will say "Just play G Ionian on it". So far I have no problem with that. But, some people say, and that's where I have a problem, you should play : G Ionian over the Gmajor chord, B Phrygian over the Bminor chord, D Mixolydian over the Dmajor chord and back to G Ionian for that last Gmajor.

That doesn't make sense. To me, if you do that, first of all it's all pretty much going to sound like G Ionian all over (even if you changed position/mode), simply because the backing track focuses on Gmaj, the main chord of the riff.

I guess you could change mode at each chord change, as mentioned, and start on the root of each mode each time you change, (and obviously the root of each chord), but isn't it going to sound a bit boring?

So I am not sure I agree with people saying that "It will sound better if you play B Phrygian over the Bmin Chord". I don't think it'll sound better. I think it'll sound the same as if you would have continued on G Ionian, because of the color of all this progression comes from the chords. And the chords were focusing on G. After all, the notes in B Phrygian are the same notes as G Ionian... So unless you start each mode with the root, nobody is going hear the difference.

Same as if you just play one Chord, Cmaj for example. If you play A Aeolian on top of that chord, I think it's still going to sound like C Ionian. Because that chord in the background focuses not on A, but on C.

Anybody else agrees with this?
 
Problem is you are MIXING concepts

Modes thought from the "harmonic" point of view are not modes but "exotic scales".

To really understand modes, you should start from the beginning and study Gregorian Chants and music based on those modes (in particular that one, for being the oldest with clear written examples).

Today what you hear with guitarist playing "modes" are just basically a different palette of colors for basically the same stuff all over.....make something to sound like a IV, or a dominant (V), and from there its dominant (being the II),

For example, when you use the phrygian mode (wrongly named phrygian, the real name should be Dorian, which makes even more sense when you study greek music, but mistakes in historicians resulted in this wrong names) today you hear something as a prolonged Dominant and it in this way, for example in E, they always resolve around the E note, with F and D making its "bordadura".


Basically, if you really want to play with MODES, you have to forget about harmony, because there is really NO HARMONY nor harmonic function in modal music (basically a monophonic/single melody music)