In that your argument is such that morality and practicality are one, the "homosexual debate" is a cornerstone to your argument, and is therefore a perfectly reasonable topic of discussion. You say, essentially, that homosexuality is unnatural and that it is impossible to produce offspring (I assume this is your argument against homosexuality). So is a barren woman who nonetheless marries acting immorally and impractically, since marriage, on a practical and moral level, is to pair a loving man and woman together to produce offspring and raise them? Is a homosexual couple that chooses to adopt a child acting less morally or more morally? On the one hand, it is even more unnatural and thus, in your view, less moral, for two men to raise a child together as a homosexual pair than it is merely to be a homosexual pair. On the other hand, the two are serving the function of marriage while simultaneously adopting a disadvantaged youth. Or is improving the livelihood of one mere individual simply treating a symptom and not a cause and therefore impractical and immoral?
In that your argument is such that morality and practicality are one, the "homosexual debate" is a cornerstone to your argument, and is therefore a perfectly reasonable topic of discussion.
You say, essentially, that homosexuality is unnatural and that it is impossible to produce offspring (I assume this is your argument against homosexuality). So is a barren woman who nonetheless marries acting immorally and impractically, since marriage, on a practical and moral level, is to pair a loving man and woman together to produce offspring and raise them?
Is a homosexual couple that chooses to adopt a child acting less morally or more morally? On the one hand, it is even more unnatural and thus, in your view, less moral, for two men to raise a child together as a homosexual pair than it is merely to be a homosexual pair. On the other hand, the two are serving the function of marriage while simultaneously adopting a disadvantaged youth. Or is improving the livelihood of one mere individual simply treating a symptom and not a cause and therefore impractical and immoral?
It's a misconception that the primary goal of the sexual drive is reproduction. People cathect onto certain objects for a plethora of reasons; the sexual orientation of a person is formed over a long period of time. If it's "unnatural" to become a homosexual, it's just as unnatural to become heterosexual. There is no universal teleological aim of sexuality. From birth it's associated with certain pleasurable sensations, and the objects that provide/influence these sensations serve to mold the subject's sexual orientation.
The return of the means of production to the people is a very Marxian argument.
TBH I loled at this whole paragraph. I disagree, and consider any possible evidence you might bring to back these suggestions up as junk science. I'm sorry bro.
Returning means of production? You are over thinking this. I am merely advocating that one guy (or small group) can't monopolize a limited and unreplaceable resource(land) which, by default, enslaves everyone.
The way I read it, it sounded as though you believe that people who work in a factory running presses or on an assembly line are "enslaved" by their managers or business owners. If everyone's freed from having to work for someone else (like you said) and given a plot of land on which to make their own way, that's returning the means of production necessary for survival to the people. Obviously, those who work will survive, and those who don't won't; but it's still equal distribution of property rights.
Less morally, since they are assisting in passing on unnatural/immoral/impractical lifestyles through learned behaviour. This does not, of course, guaruntee that the behaviour will be learned, but the odds are increased. To argue otherwise is to argue from ignorance.
I think you are overlooking the voluntary vs involuntary issue. Acquiring property (outside of theft/war), requires mutual consent on both sides, or no "original owner". Theft requires involves involuntary transfer of propery, as opposed to a sale or gift.
To directly steal someone's time/effort is basically slavery, which is an aggressive action.
...what? You're way overthinking what he said.
*I find this stance of yours especially troubling and hypocritical given your utterly fanatical belief in autonomy and self-making one's life. Really man, you're a living, breathing pile of stupid contradictions and I almost wonder how you convince yourself of all of the baseless, disturbingly anti-human/sociopathic shit you believe.
I don't see any purpose in redistributing land equally to the people with no regulation because that would simply result in capitalism (as it exists now) rising up again over the course of time; it would basically set the clock back and we would watch the same process happen again. It's inevitable.
However, the alternative is to have people work their own land while being regulated by a centralized government, which raises far too many wild cards. A centralized government requires a military superiority over its people, and when it regulates the means of production you will inevitably have tyranny.
Both of these systems are forms of ideal theory, and neither is practically applicable.
What if I decide I want to appropriate an unowned thing but non-appropriators do not consent to my appropriation? Should their non-consent be taken seriously? But if not, then what explanatory work does it do to say that somebody who "owns" something does not consent to the involuntary transfer? The only difference here seems to be that we're assuming at the outset that the "owners" actually have a right to what they have.
I think that's only convincing if you already accept the libertarian view of property rights. Slavery is involuntary servitude, which requires that something be done to somebody to make them do something they don't agree to in the relevant sense. But I do no such thing when I "steal someone's time/effort." I only manipulate things external to them.
Every time a new form of government has been established, the "clock has been rolled back" before the country inevitabley spirals into tyranny again. This is not really a valid arguement against change or for holdign the status quo.
A centralized government also does not need military superiority unless it is trying to control, as opposed to governing. There is a difference. The purpose of a military is supposed to be to external, not internal threats, and the government and military should be of, not seperate from, the people.
But of course, even as evidenced in America, over time this ceases to be the case, and many people would have it so.
It's contradictory to believe there is a "best way" to do things while not believing people should be forced to do it that way? Really? You need to rethink that accusation.
Your rhetoric is getting out of hand. Antihuman? Sociopathic? Bigoted? These are words and terms that apply to people modern day people like Saddam, Cheney, and Eric Holder (respectivily).
It is not hate to disagree, but it is bigoted to be intolerant of disagreement.
Fuck me,don't you dudes ever just get drunk and think 'who gives a fuck'? it's not like any of you are ever gonna make a difference anyway or has your college degree programmed you all to just dribble shit flatout?.I can't even be fucked reading any of this shit sober or drunk.
It is actually specific types of people that seek power/to maintain it, not "government". Government is merely a vehicle for control. But one person/small group of people can only maintain control as long as they are allowed, as every revolution throughout history has shown.
Well, since you're such a clever guy, perhaps you can tell me exactly how I overthought what he said.
Okay, excuse me. You're full of shit. There, is that a better way to phrase my disgust with your awful opinion?