Dak
mentat
Beside the point. Culture exists regardless of how individuals perceive it, and it operates without their consent.
Like economic law?
Beside the point. Culture exists regardless of how individuals perceive it, and it operates without their consent.
Russia said on Tuesday that it would supply one of its most advanced anti-aircraft missiles to the Syrian government hours after the EU ended its arms embargo on the country's rebels, raising the prospect of a rapidly escalating proxy war in the region if peace talks fail in Geneva next month.
Israel quickly issued a thinly veiled warning that it would bomb the Russian S-300s if they were deployed in Syria as such a move would bring the advanced guided missiles within range of civilian and military planes in Israeli air space.
Russia's deputy foreign minister, Sergei Ryabkov, argued that the delivery of the S-300 system had been previously agreed with the Syrian government in Damascus and would be a "stabilising factor" that could dissuade "some hotheads" from entering the conflict. That appeared to be a reference to the UK and France, who pushed through the lifting of the EU embargo on Monday night and are the only European countries currently considering arming the rebel Free Syrian Army (FSA).
The move by Moscow was criticised by the White House, which said arming the Syrian government did "not bring the country closer to the desired political transition" that it deserved.
Anyway, I think I see the issue. Humans do act the same in general ways. It is these generalities that concern economics. The individual details get into subjective valuations, which do not concern economic law in themselves.
Humans consume and produce. If two or more are together, they can exchange. They can also subjugate or otherwise defraud. These are the general terms which encompass economics that come to mind at the moment. Regardless of culture, time, and place, these are human constants, most especially consumption.
Economics doesn't predict individual human interaction so much as it predicts eventual, generalized outcomes.
Explaining action and outcomes does not necessitate assigning values. This is what is meant by value free. That those doing the describing and explaining have their own valuations of those outcomes is unavoidable.
The Human sensorium is remarkably easy to hack. Our eyes acquire such fragmentary input that the brain doesn't so much see the world as make an educated guess about it. "Improbable" stimuli, therefore, tend to go unprocessed at the conscious level. We simply ignore things that don't fit with our worldview.
No, it's not really an imperfect information critique. There's no such thing as "all the information."
The point is that people always-already decide what's important to them, and thus can never describe a situation in a non-evaluative way. Take even two instances where, within a given context, the information is the same (or as controlled as possible): the portraits of Te Pehi Kupe.
Western portrait:
Self-portrait:
It has less to do with the given information and more to do with how different people, even different humans, choose to evaluate that information. The act of describing and explaining cannot be separated from the process of evaluation.
Finally, if it is partially an imperfect information critique, then who cares? I read theories of economics, especially human-action economics like praxeology as being dependent upon centered selves with uninhibited access to the world around them, and the ability to successfully judge that world. None of that settles well with me.
Correct, there is no such thing as "all the information", so any such critique is empty, unless it is of a claim that one does have all the information.
As far as the portrait: Economics is not art. The subjective valuation of what an artist wishes to see, or wishes his audience to see, is not the same thing. Whether or not any given economist is correct or incorrect about any given phenomenon, doesn't alter them anymore so than a portrait alters the thing.
Here's where value plays a part separately from the critique of "what will happen". It's generally agreed that increasing the money supply, ceteris paribus, will inflate prices. Austrians have a value judgement on this as bad. Keynesians and Monetarists see this as good and necessary, so long as it is "controlled". The reasonings behind these value judgements are obviously divergent past the basic principle, as well as what exactly constitutes inflating the money supply.
What does "successfully judging the world" and "uninhibited access" mean? Praxeology describes behavior both individually and interacting with others, it does not prescribe it. Prescriptions are value, or ethics based. IE "This is how people behave (descriptive) - If you want to prevent problems A/B/C, don't do X,Y,Z."(prescriptive).
If those problems aren't of concern, or you don't believe the prescription, you don't have to follow it. If it is true though, that won't make it any less potent.
No, it's not empty. This goes back to the argument we just had on cognitive tricks. You need to stop turning arguments around back on themselves because this is misleading and fallacious.
My argument is that the information is not only never entirely given (imperfect information), but that the information that is given is always-already influenced by an actor's expectations and task-at-hand coming into a situation. Furthermore, the reason for making the imperfect information argument in the first place is that, as I said already, a methodology like praxeology relies on the possibility of a centrally acting self being able to successfully acquire all the information in a given scenario. Then, you proceeded to simply ignore what I'd already said. I'll address this below.
You make analogies all the time. Analogies are never the same as the thing we're talking about. That's why they're analogies.
Economics isn't art, but all I'm saying is that the descriptive approach, as you conceive it, is prior to any value judgments. You're wrong about that, and I'm using art in order to demonstrate that you can't separate description from prescription (to use your terms). Any observational act is automatically evaluative and prescriptive.
The descriptive action is evaluative in and of itself. That's what I'm trying to say. It doesn't somehow evade evaluative judgment. You cannot separate them.
You obviously ignored what I've said because you're still trying to separate two things that are inseparable.
I'm saying the argument doesn't apply except where it does. And that is not here. If I said "I have all the information about X", you could rightly respond that no one ever has all the information. But the "imperfect information" critique otherwise manifests as a handwave of the information that is in hand.
It, or the actor(s) described, does/do not require perfect information, since it's descriptive of behavior acting always-already-under imperfect information. Even more to the point about the constant of imperfect information as it regards economic calculation, I do not "know what tomorrow may bring". I do not fully understand cause and effect. I am making more or less educated guesses about what will bring about my desired end. Conditions constantly change, both externally and internally. This is not a weakness of praxeology but a strength.
An observation is also prescriptive?
There is a difference in "this is the color blue" vs "I like/don't like the color blue", although we might call them both evaluative. I don't know what would be a satisfactory distinction between these to you.
I find this to be a misinterpretation of praxeology. But since you've read more on this than me, I'll take your word for it that it doesn't ask perfect information (or assume perfect information, and perfect empirical abilities) of its actors. Furthermore, I'll assume that praxeology can apply to non-human actors.
Again, you're deploying misapplications and false dichotomies.
An observation is also prescriptive yes; because an observation does not entail that one must speak it. Observations and evaluations take place simultaneously; there is no separating them from each other. As soon as you notice that something is blue, you also have an awareness of whether you like blue or not.
Now, an evaluative statement such as "This is blue" is still evaluative because it relies on the very empirical instruments that formulate the way we evaluate the world. Our values derive from the perceptive senses that allow us to interpret the world around us. That these are inherently bound up with the way we automatically evaluate the world doesn't strike me as obscure and sketchy, but as obvious. Blue is an English word, it has an etymological history, it carries connotations (sad, boy, etc.) and denotations (sky, ocean, etc.), and none of these can be separated from the act of observation. For other cultures, maybe entirely different associations prevail. Either way, you can't viably make the claim that an act of observation is purely observational and non-evaluative.