Dakryn's Batshit Theory of the Week

I don't think the author has any beef with CBT; he's just charting the relative reception of Freudian ideas within contemporary psychiatric practice. I personally found it interesting that neuroscience has something positive to say about Freud, and it's certainly true that he inaugurated a paradigm shift in how we think about the human mind--a shift that constitutes the state of the field today, even if he was wrong about the Oedipal complex and psychosexual development (both of which the author admits).

I think it's interesting that Deleuze and Guattari debunked the Oedipal complex in 1972, well before the dramatic shift toward CBT in the 1990s. Critical philosophy has long been skeptical of Freud despite awarding him intellectual prestige.

I also think the author's main point is that while Freud is frequently associated with ideas that have fallen out of favor, the scientific impetus that drove his thinking established a new paradigm for psychological study. Furthermore, there was plenty that Freud also got right. I think it's telling that neuroscience hasn't entirely discarded Freud, even today.

Things like panic and phobias can be addressed with little to no introspection.

It sounds as though this is the bio-materialist position the author is concentrating on. I'm not swayed by his late appeals to enjoying our subjectivity, or some such; but I do think it's worth interrogating exactly how much we can reduce all psychic experience to neuronal phenomena.
 
I don't think the author has any beef with CBT; he's just charting the relative reception of Freudian ideas within contemporary psychiatric practice. I personally found it interesting that neuroscience has something positive to say about Freud, and it's certainly true that he inaugurated a paradigm shift in how we think about the human mind--a shift that constitutes the state of the field today, even if he was wrong about the Oedipal complex and psychosexual development (both of which the author admits).

I think it's interesting that Deleuze and Guattari debunked the Oedipal complex in 1972, well before the dramatic shift toward CBT in the 1990s. Critical philosophy has long been skeptical of Freud despite awarding him intellectual prestige.

I also think the author's main point is that while Freud is frequently associated with ideas that have fallen out of favor, the scientific impetus that drove his thinking established a new paradigm for psychological study. Furthermore, there was plenty that Freud also got right. I think it's telling that neuroscience hasn't entirely discarded Freud, even today.

The CBT shift happened in the 80s as far as I know. Freud's only right contribution that I know of is the emphasis on the subconscious, which is solely from a neuroscience perspective. It's not actionable from a therapy or neuroscience perspective. Therapy can only be conscious acting on the unconscious (or conscious). My currently most challenging client has a lot of anxious difficulties primarily stemming from parental related criticism as far as I can deduce. I can't change their parents. I can influence change in their conscious relations and behaviors, and exposure to those challenging situations after psychoeducation in the processes has been beneficial.


It sounds as though this is the bio-materialist position the author is concentrating on. I'm not swayed by his late appeals to enjoying our subjectivity, or some such; but I do think it's worth interrogating exactly how much we can reduce all psychic experience to neuronal phenomena.

Exposure to stimuli (with some cognitive education) to reactive stimuli works better than couch sessions or drugs. Panic and phobia are based on irrational fears which are only changed with counter learning experience.
 
The CBT shift happened in the 80s as far as I know.

I think you're right. I read that a lot of publications began coming out in the '90s, but that's probably because research was being done for many years prior.

Freud's only right contribution that I know of is the emphasis on the subconscious, which is solely from a neuroscience perspective. It's not actionable from a therapy or neuroscience perspective. Therapy can only be conscious acting on the unconscious (or conscious). My currently most challenging client has a lot of anxious difficulties primarily stemming from parental related criticism as far as I can deduce. I can't change their parents. I can influence change in their conscious relations and behaviors, and exposure to those challenging situations after psychoeducation in the processes has been beneficial.

Is it your impression that introspection aims to alter contingent reality? I only ask because your phrasing makes it seem like you think psychoanalysis, or related therapeutic methods, do aim to "change their parents." I think it's glaringly obvious that there are things in life we can't change. I don't think that psychoanalysis would be so egregiously misguided as to insist that a patient can change anything/everything.

I'm not equipped to comment on its practicality, but does impracticality render something valueless? Plenty of discoveries in the physical sciences have no practical application, but no one complains about them.

Exposure to stimuli (with some cognitive education) to reactive stimuli works better than couch sessions or drugs. Panic and phobia are based on irrational fears which are only changed with counter learning experience.

Again, I'm ill-equipped to speak to much of this. How do you propose to arrive at "counter learning experiences" without some degree of introspection?
 
Is it your impression that introspection aims to alter contingent reality? I only ask because your phrasing makes it seem like you think psychoanalysis, or related therapeutic methods, do aim to "change their parents." I think it's glaringly obvious that there are things in life we can't change. I don't think that psychoanalysis would be so egregiously misguided as to insist that a patient can change anything/everything.

I'm not equipped to comment on its practicality, but does impracticality render something valueless? Plenty of discoveries in the physical sciences have no practical application, but no one complains about them.

Psychoanalysis doesn't presume to change relations to parents, I assume, but a change in relation must be part of therapy, and/or now we reach into CBT. Every situation is different, but I embrace the 3rd wave approach which includes a value driven goals objective, which has at least some nod to Freud.

Again, I'm ill-equipped to speak to much of this. How do you propose to arrive at "counter learning experiences" without some degree of introspection?

If we are talking about phobia there is some learning about the nature of general cognition, but the function or mechanism of change is exposure to the thing they are afraid of absent the resullt they are afraid of; on repitition.
 
Psychoanalysis doesn't presume to change relations to parents, I assume, but a change in relation must be part of therapy, and/or now we reach into CBT. Every situation is different, but I embrace the 3rd wave approach which includes a value driven goals objective, which has at least some nod to Freud.

If we are talking about phobia there is some learning about the nature of general cognition, but the function or mechanism of change is exposure to the thing they are afraid of absent the resullt they are afraid of; on repitition.

Based on what you're saying, it sounds as though the author of the piece isn't granting undue value to Freud's role in contemporary neuropsychiatry.

Obviously this isn't the character of my relationship with Freud's work, I just found it to be interesting since I assume, for the most part, that Freud was still dismissed by current practitioners. I also think it's too bad his work is dismissed wholesale as unscientific when much of it exhibits scientific tendencies behind the scenes. That is, I don't think that interpretive methodologies are necessarily unscientific.
 
Based on what you're saying, it sounds as though the author of the piece isn't granting undue value to Freud's role in contemporary neuropsychiatry.

Obviously this isn't the character of my relationship with Freud's work, I just found it to be interesting since I assume, for the most part, that Freud was still dismissed by current practitioners. I also think it's too bad his work is dismissed wholesale as unscientific when much of it exhibits scientific tendencies behind the scenes. That is, I don't think that interpretive methodologies are necessarily unscientific.

Well yeah Freud isn't addressed outside of History. Third wave CBT doesn't explicitly mention Freud either to my knowledge, but there is necessarily introspection involved in addressing values.
 
Well, it'll be interesting to see where neuropsychiatry goes from here.

In other news, Peter Watts on the positivity of pessimism:

http://www.rifters.com/crawl/?p=7809

Science, by nature, is conservative; a result isn’t even considered statistically significant below a probability of at least 95%, often 99%. Global systems are full of complexity and noise, things that degrade statistical significance even in the presence of real effects—so scientific publications, almost by definition, tend to understate risk.


By a couple dozen climate scientists.

Which might explain why, once we were finally able to collect field data to weigh against decades of computer projections, the best news was that observed CO2 emissions were only tracking the predicted worst-case scenario. Ice-cap melting and sea-level rise were worse than the predicted worst-case—and from what I can tell this is pretty typical. (I’ve been checking in on the relevant papers in Science and Nature since before the turn of the century, and I can remember maybe two papers in all that time that said Hey, this variable actually isn’t as bad as we thought!)

So saying that Wallace-Wells takes the worst-case scenario isn’t a criticism. It’s an endorsement. If anything, the man understates our predicament. Which made it a bit troubling to see even Ramez Naam—defender of dystopian fiction—weighing in against the New York piece. Calling it “bleak” and “misleading”, he accused Wallace-Wells of “underestimat[ing] Human ingenuity” and “exaggerat[ing] impacts”. He spoke of trend lines for anticipated temperature rise bending down, not up— and of course, he lamented the hopeless tone of the article which would, he felt, make it psychologically harder to take action.

I’m not sure where Ramez got his trend data—it doesn’t seem entirely consistent with what those Copenhagen folks had to say a few years back—but even if he’s right, it’s a little like saying Yes, we may be a hundred meters away from running into that iceberg, but over the past couple of hours we’ve actually managed to change course by three whole degrees! Progress! At this rate we’ll be able to miss the iceberg entirely in just another three or four kilometers!
 
I prefer to take the positive view that we are averting the catastrophe of an Ice Age - unless we merely avert it long enough for prevailing climate countermechanisms to send the earth back into one anyway. Losing Florida is nothing compared to glaciers covering half of the northern hemisphere. A much bigger problem for humans than climate change is antibiotic resistant bacteria (and a problem in which humans are easily, demonstrably responsible - although not 100%), and it's not getting the same level of hysterics.
 
I prefer to take the positive view that we are averting the catastrophe of an Ice Age - unless we merely avert it long enough for prevailing climate countermechanisms to send the earth back into one anyway. Losing Florida is nothing compared to glaciers covering half of the northern hemisphere. A much bigger problem for humans than climate change is antibiotic resistant bacteria (and a problem in which humans are easily, demonstrably responsible - although not 100%), and it's not getting the same level of hysterics.

An ice age is only one scenario; it's more complicated than either "Ice Age--we're fucked" or "No Ice Age--it's all good." There's a continuum of climate activity and disruption in between that affects regions across the globe, takes a toll on various species, and upsets local ecosystems. All of these have impacts on humanity, including on the global economy.
 
An ice age is only one scenario; it's more complicated than either "Ice Age--we're fucked" or "No Ice Age--it's all good." There's a continuum of climate activity and disruption in between that affects regions across the globe, takes a toll on various species, and upsets local ecosystems. All of these have impacts on humanity, including on the global economy.

Sure, there are hurricanes, tornados, rain/aridness; not to mention rising seas and shifting flora/fauna and concomitant virus/bacterial dispersions. But all of those are much more vulnerable to human mitigation than glaciers (other than apparently pumping CO2 into the atmosphere - although I'm still skeptical of the degree to which CO2 has such an effect). There's no scenario where there is climate stasis, so complaining about changing local ecosystems due simply to climate is very shortsighted.
 
How is complaining about ecosystems shortsighted? I don't understand that.

I also don't understand your skepticism, but whatever.

I said complaining about them based simply on climate change. Obviously if humans come in and do massive terraforming, or kill off X species, etc., there's reason for concern.

My skepticism is because the predictions so far have been off, and there is at least some evidence to suggest that there's not a simple +carbon = +temp causal relationship. In any case, the net problems as foreseen by even such a relationship is less than the loss of the dramatic cut in carbon required - at least unless the earth goes full nuclear power, which people do not seem to want to do.
 
https://samzdat.com/2017/12/19/euthyphro-dilemmas-as-mathematical-objects/

The first series had a bunch of stuff we can agree on, like “Politics are things people do, sometimes with ballots and other times with guns.” This one is going to have a lot we don’t agree on, like “Actually, it makes perfect sense for Heidegger to talk about the world worlding, really clarified the passage for me.”

The reason it makes sense is math.

The “worlding” school of philosophy, i.e. continental philosophy, where “continent”=France and “philosophy”=[tasteless joke at the expense of the dead], is generally considered to be the one that tacitly endorses neo-Kipling verses like “The scientific method is a social construct, foisted on hapless Natives by monopoly men in Pith helmets, haven’t you read post-colonial theory?” Dazzlingly incoherent, and also why it’s going to sound odd when I say that they’re part of a tradition that was all about the problem of saving math as a reliable thing.

They’re responding to Heidegger, who is responding to Husserl, both of whom are dealing with Kant’s framework, and Kant’s framework doesn’t make any sense until you realize that he needs the entire thing to address one central issue: why does math work with the physical world?

As shocking as this sounds to people who dismiss continental philosophy as inherently anti-rational, I guarantee it’s more shocking to people heavily invested in post-Heideggerian Comparative Literature departments.

@Einherjar86 I'm genuinely interested in your take on this series as it develops, and I a priori promise not to argue about it :D
 
Huh.

Well, some preliminary comments to demonstrate my curiosity yet also my suspicion, in response to some of his comments:

They’re responding to Heidegger, who is responding to Husserl, both of whom are dealing with Kant’s framework, and Kant’s framework doesn’t make any sense until you realize that he needs the entire thing to address one central issue: why does math work with the physical world?

As shocking as this sounds to people who dismiss continental philosophy as inherently anti-rational, I guarantee it’s more shocking to people heavily invested in post-Heideggerian Comparative Literature departments.

I'm not sure why he assumes it's so shocking. I actually think it makes a lot of sense.

For what it's worth, I fucking love reading about math even though I have little understanding of the specifics. I'm fascinated by early-twentieth-century mathematics and the fallout of logical positivism, as Wittgenstein's Tractatus all but spelled out its doom. I think the mathematical quandaries that arose from the work of David Hilbert, Kurt Gödel, and Alan Turing are some of the most interesting and substantial breakthroughs in the history of modern science. Why do "post-Heideggerian Comparative Lit departments" need to be shocked or perturbed by this, or even doubt the relevance of such discoveries?

Furthermore, I'm not over-generalizing by projecting my own fascination onto the majority of humanities scholars. If anyone bothers to actually talk with humanities scholars about mathematics, they'll find at worst indifference, and at best affirmation (my dissertation advisor has an undergraduate degree in mathematics, in fact). Our current Buzzfeed golden boy, Ted Chiang, wrote that a "proof that mathematics is inconsistent, and that all its wondrous beauty was just an illusion, would, it seemed to me, be one of the worst things you could ever learn." Deleuze, Derrida, and Lacan were all interested with mathematics, and not with the notion that it was a "social construct" (I get really tired of this being the go-to criticism of the humanities, by the way).

Deleuze and Guattari write that it "was a decisive event when the mathematician Riemann uprooted the multiple from its predicate state and made it a noun, 'multiplicity.' It marked the end of dialectics and the beginning of a typology and topology of multiplicities."

For Derrida and Lacan, mathematics issued a challenge analogous to the one stated in the blog, i.e. the Kantian dilemma of analytic vs. synthetic knowledge. The analogous challenge has to do with language--or more specifically, the subject's relation to the letter:

Burgoyne said:
Already in the first decade of his work, Lacan was working with structure, both explicitly and implicitly: explicitly with the structures of psychoanalysis and psychoanalytical psychiatry, as well as explicitly with the structures of language, and implicitly with the structures of mathematics. Even in this period of Lacan's work, he was committed to the necessity of producing an analysis of the structures of language.

In other words, Lacan proceeded according to his own brand of positivism; but he went on to incorporate the post-Hilbert rupture of mathematics, what Hilbert called the Entsheidungsproblem, which in turn led to the halting problem and Gödelian incompleteness. For Derrida, mathematics manifests in the uncertainty relation between the spectator and a work of art--a framing problem, or parergon in Derrida's terminology. Mathematicians were fascinated by the question of how to verify solvability; continental philosophers were fascinated by the question of how to verify meaning. It's no coincidence that mathematical language and models found their way into continental thought, since both fields encountered the same dilemma (which yes, has its roots in Kant).

Additionally, Alain Badiou's entire philosophy is built on a reading of Georg Cantor's set theory, and premised on the notion that "mathematics is ontology":

Badiou said:
The entire history of rational thought appeared to me to be illuminated once one assumed the hypothesis that mathematics, far from being a game without object, draws the exceptional severity of its law from being bound to support the discourse of ontology. In a reversal of the Kantian question, it was no longer a matter of asking: 'How is pure mathematics possible?' and responding: thanks to a transcendental subject. Rather: pure mathematics being the science of being, how is a subject possible?

And finally, I'm working on a paper that discusses the relationship between early-20thc mathematics and modernist writing (with which of course the continentals were obsessed). I'm going ahead and providing an excerpt (the paper itself is far from complete):

This essay asks what it means to ascribe a halting problem to modernism, and how modernist literature affords us the opportunity to conceptualize such a claim. A precedent for modernism’s halting problem emerges in 1922, in Ludwig Wittgenstein’s inimitable Tractatus Logico-Philosophicus—a text that weakens the foundations of formal logic even as it seeks to edify them. As the infectious lure of the Tractatus infiltrates the modern bloodstream, analogous responses begin to appear in both literature and the sciences. Not quite so deconstructive as Derrida’s parergon, modernist literature simultaneously exhibits a faith in, and skepticism toward, the stability of the aesthetic frame. A parallel skepticism emerges in mathematics and computer sciences as their practitioners begin to distinguish, in a manner similar to Wittgenstein’s Tractatus, between expressing isolated facts in the form of individual theorems and algorithmically determining the total formal system in which those theorems appear: “To be able to represent the logical form,” Wittgenstein writes, “we should have to be able to put ourselves with the propositions outside logic, that is outside the world.” With the publication of the Tractatus, modernist writers and scientists alike find themselves confronted with the implacable presence of the Outside. For mathematicians, this implacable presence rears its head in the figure of the halting problem; for modernist writers, it emerges in their ambivalence toward aesthetic form.

The halting problem initiated a fascination with how exactly to handle the question of determining solvability without actually doing any solving. The operation demands a language in which one can talk about proofs, and a set of formal statements about the provability of statements. The recursion of this demand opens the door to Gödel’s famous incompleteness theorems, which establish that within any given formal systems there are true statements that cannot be proven true.[ii] Douglas R. Hofstadter refers to this as “Gödel’s trick,” and describes it as “like trying to quote an entire sentence inside itself.”[iii] The Church-Turing hypothesis refined Gödel’s conceptual logic about five years later, in 1936, essentially proving that no program can be written in a language that can perform solvability tests on all other programs also written in that language.[iv] These programs cannot define their limits in their own vernacular. Even a program that attempted to make statements about programs in a lower-level language cannot guarantee that all its statements about those lower-level programs would be true, since in order to do so it would it need to address its own language, thereby necessitating another level of metalinguistic discourse.[v]

This is all well and good for mathematics, but what of modernism? Logical form is not aesthetic form, and we would not do well to confuse the two. Works of art are not arguments; they do not persuade us so much as seduce us. The emphasis in this paper lies not in conceiving of modernism as a logical system, but in conceiving of modernism as an aesthetic expression of the logical upsets in the works of Gödel, Turing, and Wittgenstein. Modernism’s halting problem emerges in the corollary between the epistemological drive for complete knowledge and the ontological drive for complete meaning—the full wealth of occupying our human experience.

Wittgenstein, Tractatus Logico-Philosophicus, 1922, trans. C.K. Ogden, New York: Barnes & Noble, 2003, 4.12. All citations to the Tractatus refer to aphorisms.

[ii] Fortnow gives an example in the form of an adaptation of the liar’s paradox: “There is no proof that this sentence is true” (111). If the sentence is false, then there is a proof that it is true, in which case the sentence would be true, but then would have no proof of being true. The insidious effect of this equation is that it persuades its readers to equate provability with truth: “Gödel also shows that we cannot prove that ‘everything we can prove is true is true’ unless we can also prove false things” (111). Put another way, Gödel’s incompleteness theorems reveal a glaring aporia in the recursive functions of formal systems. When looking for proofs of solvability, practitioners will always inevitably encounter true statements whose solvability cannot be guaranteed by the formal language available to them.

[iii] Hofstadter, Gödel, Escher, Bach: An Eternal Golden Braid, 1979, New York: Basic Books, 1999, 426.

[iv] Hofstadter, 429. See also C.A.R. Hoare and D.C.S. Allison, “Incomputability,” Computing Surveys 4.3 (1972), 178: “Any language containing conditionals and recursive functions definitions which is powerful enough to program its own interpreter cannot be used to program its own ‘terminates’ function.”

[v] The suggested overlap between Wittgenstein and Turing is not accidental, nor is it original. For an exceptional and detailed account of Wittgenstein’s influence on Turing (and vice versa), see Juliet Floyd, “Chains of Life: Turing, Lebensform, and the Emergence of Wittgenstein’s Later Style,” Nordic Wittgenstein Review 5.2 (2016): 7-89. Floyd suggests that Turing’s and Wittgenstein’s mature works challenge the formalization of metalevel systems that can account for the complexity of all possible formal statements, phrasing this challenge as an embrace of infinite recombination—that is, as a halting problem: “with Turing’s analysis in hand, [Wittgenstein] now realized that he could—or should—continually detach, move, rearrange, amalgamate and reconfigure motifs and pieces of procedure and thought and conversation (and its ending) within one another without end” (17).

Given all this, I find samzdat's following comment misguided:

The continentals took Kant seriously, continued his tradition, at some point forgot that their school only makes sense in light of Kant, proclaimed math oppressive and/or not real.

I don't think any notable continental philosopher has forgotten about Kant's influence or the influence of mathematical thought.

Anyway, it's my guess he'll turn eventually to the likes of Hilbert, Gödel, Turing, etc., since these guys basically inaugurated the epistemological crisis of mathematics in the twentieth century.
 
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Scott Alexander reviews Madness and Civilization. Went about how I would expect and more or less aligned with my impression, although Scott put more effort into checking into and documenting the questionable assertions:

http://slatestarcodex.com/2018/01/04/book-review-madness-and-civilization/

Everything above is a really superficial reading of Madness And Civilization and probably misses the whole point of the book.

This point is something that alternately seems postmodern or kabbalistic or – for lack of a better term – insane. It’s not just saying that This Historical Period treated the mad This Way, but That Historical Period treated them That Way. It’s trying to peek beneath the hood (or the veil?) to find the zeitgeist, the animating spirit of the European continent that led them to do things as they did and which transformed one schema into another. This is rarely anything sensible, like “the economy improved” or “there was a revolution”. More often it’s some kind of deep subconscious beliefs about the meaning of humanity or freedom or symbolism or something. If Europe was one guy, this book would be Foucault performing Freudian dream analysis on that guy.

For example, the Europeans didn’t put their madmen on Ships Of Fools just because it was a convenient way to get rid of them, but also because:
........
Let’s appreciate a few things about this passage. First, it’s phenomenal writing. I apologize for thinking all Continental philosophy had to be badly-written; in retrospect Nietzsche should have cured me of this delusion.

But second, it’s totally bonkers. Like, forget the fact that there weren’t any real Ships Of Fools and Foucault is analyzing a literary motif. Forget that the literary motif actually comes from a metaphor by Plato which is about something else. Even if the rivers of Europe were choked with such Ships, this is just a phenomenally unproductive way to think about anything. This is the kind of thought process where we drill for oil because we are symbolically sexually penetrating Mother Earth (insert kabbalistic analysis of the word “fracking” here).
..........................
This is the thrust of the last chapter, and Foucault ties all of this together into a case that all of the reformers were just jerks, and they sought more humane treatment for the mentally ill out of a desire to judge and dominate them. This is fantastically contrarian. Foucault does not give an inch to the position that maybe there was something good and wholesome about the desire to rescue people from being crammed by the dozen in rat-infested cells with all of their limbs chained together. He doesn’t specifically say the rat-infested cells were better, but he sure hints at it pretty hard.

I always like contrarian takes. But I can’t make sense of what Foucault is trying to do here. And also, some of the same sites that debunk the Ship Of Fools thing say that actually the Renaissance was super-cruel to mad people, and Foucault’s picture of them as tolerant and understanding is composed entirely of cherry-picking and imagination.

The best I can do here is say that Foucault is too much of an Idealist where I am a Materialist. I measure humanitarian victories in prisoners freed and rat bites averted. He seems to measures them how the dream sequences of Personified Europe are treating the dialogue between Madness and Reason. Probably there’s a perspective in which this makes sense, but this book didn’t manage to teach me to appreciate it.
.............
Either everyone in the past is a total liar (given this effect, probably true), Foucault himself is a total liar (given the Ship of Fools thing, probably true), or we need even more constant vigilance than we’ve been applying thus far (alas, probably also true).
 
SSC said:
And so, Foucault tells us, in the fifteenth century there is a sudden emergence of a complex of artistic and philosophical themes linking madmen, the sea, and the terrible mysteries of the world. These culminate in the Ship Of Fools:

Renaissance men developed a delightful, yet horrible way of dealing with their mad denizens: they were put on a ship and entrusted to mareiners because folly, water, and sea, as everyone then knew, had an affinity for each other. Thus, “Ships of Fools” crisscrossed the seas and canals of Europe with their comic and pathetic cargo of souls. Some of them found pleasure and even a cure in the changing surroundings, in the isolation of being cast off, while others withdrew further, became worse, or died alone and away from their families. The cities and villages which had thus rid themselves of their crazed and crazy, could now take pleasure in watching the exciting sideshow when a ship full of foreign lunatics would dock at their harbors.

This was such a great piece of historical trivia that I was shocked I’d never heard it before. Some quick research revealed the reason: it is completely, 100% false. Apparently Foucault looked at an allegorical painting by Hieronymous Bosch, decided it definitely existed in real life, and concocted the rest from his imagination.

It wasn't "completely, 100% false." Alexander is misreading what Foucault is saying here. Foucault isn't claiming that a legitimate cultural phenomenon called the "Ship of Fools" appeared in the fifteenth century, ferrying the insane about to keep them away from town and cities. He borrows the term "Ship of Fools," or Narrenschiff, from literature, and he acknowledges this:

Foucault said:
This Narrenschiff was clearly a literary invention, and was probably borrowed from the ancient cycle of the Argonauts [...]. Such ships were a literary commonplace, with a crew of imaginary heroes, moral models or carefully defined social types who set out on a great symbolic voyage that brought them, if not fortune, at the very least, the figure of their destiny or of their truth.

What Foucault is saying is that there are documented cases of the insane being forcibly removed from land and placed on boats or ships. This wasn't an institutionalized practice, it was just something that happened. Foucault is appealing to the Narrenschiff for rhetorical purposes, which is why he puts the term in quotation marks, i.e. "Ships of Fools" crisscrossed the seas...

No one actually referred to these as "ships of fools" during this time, and there was no established institution for placing the insane on boats. It just happened occasionally, and Foucault does provide references for this in his endnotes. One of those quite common instances of life imitating art...

Of course, I'm working from the more expansive History of Madness, of which Madness and Civilization is the truncated version. So maybe he made some cuts thinking people would understand.
 
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It wasn't "completely, 100% false." Alexander is misreading what Foucault is saying here. Foucault isn't claiming that a legitimate cultural phenomenon called the "Ship of Fools" appeared in the fifteenth century, ferrying the insane about to keep them away from town and cities. He borrows the term "Ship of Fools," or Narrenschiff, from literature, and he acknowledges this:


What Foucault is saying is that there are documented cases of the insane being forcibly removed from land and placed on boats or ships. This wasn't an institutionalized practice, it was just something that happened. Foucault is appealing to the Narrenschiff for rhetorical purposes, which is why he puts the term in quotation marks, i.e. "Ships of Fools" crisscrossed the seas...

No one actually referred to these as "ships of fools" during this time, and there was no established institution for placing the insane on boats. It just happened occasionally, and Foucault does provide references for this in his endnotes. One of those quite common instances of life imitating art...

Of course, I'm working from the more expansive History of Madness, of which Madness and Civilization is the truncated version. So maybe he made some cuts thinking people would understand.

I'll assume you are right about this, having more familiarity with Foucault broadly moreso than myself and Alexander. But I do think that this is probably underscores the other criticisms even more. Most charitably, that Madness and Civilization isn't very useful as a review of the history of madness and civilization.
 
I'll assume you are right about this, having more familiarity with Foucault broadly moreso than myself and Alexander. But I do think that this is probably underscores the other criticisms even more. Most charitably, that Madness and Civilization isn't very useful as a review of the history of madness and civilization.

It's probably not useful as a review or historical study in the more traditional Western sense (i.e. a record of historical events that comprise a particular moment or time). It is useful as a study of how the treatment of those deemed insane reflects underlying assumptions about "madness" and gives rise to a general meaning of madness that might be attributed to a particular time period. This seems to be what Alexander finds suspicious, but Foucault is simply placing actual historical incidents in conversation with each other and noticing similarities and differences, and deriving from this a meaning. This standard criticism is that he doesn't include enough historical references to substantiate his point; but he's trying to track the evolution of the meaning(s) of madness. He's moving from the fifteenth to the nineteenth centuries. That's an insane (pun intended) amount of time to cover in one book. Even I'll admit that Foucault cherry-picks, but that's not because he's being deceptive. He's looking for extreme ways in which the deemed-insane were treated and extrapolating from these incidents.

Alexander also acknowledges at one point that Foucault seems to be more interested in institutionalization than insanity, and this is a fair assessment. After all, Foucault would go on to publish a book about institutionalization, Discipline and Punish: The Birth of the Prison.

Ultimately, perhaps even more enlightening about Foucault's treatment of insanity and its potential drawbacks is the exchange between him and Derrida, who also found flaw with Foucault's study. Derrida initiated with "Cogito and the History of Madness," and Foucault rebutted with "My Body, This Paper, This Fire."
 
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I read that and thought it was really interesting, but didn't share it because I figured there wasn't much to it (I don't feel qualified to say one way or another). That's cool that you think it actually does mesh with Austrian theory.

There is something that Orrell doesn't get quite right though, and I feel it's worth mentioning. It has to do with his association of consciousness in quantum theory and behavioral economics. He writes:

According to the standard ‘Copenhagen interpretation’, a particle such as an electron is described by a mathematical wave function, whose amplitude at any point describes the probability of finding the electron at that location. This wave function ‘collapses’ to a certain value during the measurement process. No one knows how this collapse occurs, but a conscious observer is usually assumed to be involved, which seemed to undercut the idea of physics as a purely objective science.

I'm sure Orrell is taking shortcuts for the sake of space and directness, but his description here is misleading. Heisenberg's uncertainty relation actually doesn't necessitate the presence of a conscious observer. It's true that interacting conscious observers yields one scenario of quantum uncertainty, but research since Heisenberg's original thesis suggests that the uncertainty inheres in the relation between physical objects. That is, the mere physicality or materiality of the universe itself engenders the uncertainty. It therefore follows that human observers, themselves being physical objects, also produce this uncertainty.

This is basically the difference between the uncertainty principle and the observer effect, the latter of which does necessitate some degree of conscious observation.