Einherjar86
Active Member
Has someone suggested that ownership is "absolute?" I don't know where such an idea would come from. You cannot observe something and deduce its owner (certainly inscriptions are possible, but ownership doesn't necessarily follow from that).
This is from a text by historian Orlando Patterson, entitled Slavery and Social Death:
The prevailing view of ownership, which persists as a fundamental legal concept in continental civil law and is now universally employed as a social concept even in countries such as Britain and America in spite of its irrelevance to common law, is the Roman view that it is a set of absolute rights in rem - things, usually tangibles, sometimes also intangibles.
If you wanted a perfection of traced paths of ownership this is impossible. Even if it were possible, the chain of "rightful ownership" has been broken by war and other thefts a number of times probably beyond count. We don't have a clear tracing of descendants either.
Of course, we could theoretically somehow trace all that, and then what? Do you owe me an ox your grandfather^76 stole from my great uncle^77? But then I owe you in return for the half acre of prime mountain grazing stolen by some other relative from some other relative? If all ownership becomes illegitimate then none of it becomes illegitimate, as we are all simply new first owners. Back we come to possession.
Does ownership extend to plants? To dirt? rock? planets? Solar systems?
Lots to talk about here.
For starters, you seem to be saying that, theoretically, first ownership could be traced; but this raises some important questions. Who was the first owner; the first human? But who was the first human? You've insinuated that animals, plants, rocks, etc. cannot own things; but how do we distinguish exactly when human subjects capable of ownership evolved into existence? Did the first owning human need to say: "This is mine!" But if that's the case, then ownership is a fiction - in other words, it's something that must be discursively constructed.
You also say that if all ownership is illegitimate then this somehow legitimizes all ownership; but this doesn't add up either, or at least does nothing to underscore the existence of ownership. Arbitrarily deciding on a point to mark as the origin of ownership undermines the logic of ownership; ownership simply ceases to exist. There's nothing to substantiate any claim to own something. Anyone can swoop in and take what is "yours" and you have no rational argument to resist this, since the thief can now simply declare his possession to be the new origin of ownership.