If Mort Divine ruled the world

I said why, and it is useful when there's a strain of thought that says oppression is not prehistoric in origin, but originated with capitalism.

Who says this? Where are you finding these straw men? Can you find me someone who genuinely believes there was no exploitation under feudalism?

I don't see the point in trying to compare to modern technology though. There is actual prehistoric/historic style slavery on the earth today, but how many people are using axes made from chipped rock?

Actually, there isn't prehistoric-style slavery on earth today. There's slavery, but it's misleading to compare it to slavery in ancient Sumer. Or even in ancient Rome, for that matter. In fact, modern technology has facilitated the evolution of slavery--so it makes perfect sense to speak of the two together.

People like to flatten slavery as a catch-all that simply translates into the stamping out of personal liberty, but this is a very modern and post-Enlightenment definition. Transatlantic slavery and other modern varieties are very different from the ancient forms of oppression that preceded them.
 
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https://www.theatlantic.com/international/archive/2018/05/france-delete-verses-quran/559550/

Rather than calling for absolute violence, Oubrou said the Quran advocates for a “defensive combat, against aggressors, within a historical context.” For instance, one verse says, “Fight those who do not believe in Allah or in the Last Day and who do not consider unlawful what Allah and His Messenger have made unlawful and who do not adopt the religion of truth from those who were given the Scripture—[fight] until they give the jizya [tax] willingly while they are humbled.” The Quran, like many scriptures, is internally inconsistent on this and other matters. Oubrou argued that the problem is not religion itself—it’s that through radical, literalist interpretations of the Quran, “delinquents use the religion as a veneer for cheap crimes.”

radical interpretations... :lol:
 
Who says this? Where are you finding these straw men? Can you find me someone who genuinely believes there was no exploitation under feudalism?

Well I assume you want academic quotes, not tumblr/twitter quotes from freshmen sociology majors, so in that sense it is a strawman. But:

Actually, there isn't prehistoric-style slavery on earth today. There's slavery, but it's meaningless to compare it to slavery in ancient Sumer. Or even in ancient Rome, for that matter. In fact, modern technology has facilitated the evolution of slavery--so it makes perfect sense to speak of the two together.

People like to flatten slavery as a catch-all that simply translates into the stamping out of personal liberty, but this is a very modern and post-Enlightenment definition. Transatlantic slavery and other modern varieties are very different from forms of exploitation that preceded them.

Meaningful differences =/= semantic differences. It's like the Capitalization of the Holocaust. It privileges one atrocity versus others because reasons related purely to academic/political power. And we aren't really ever talking about modern slavery anyway right? Like, you know, actual slavery, not sweat shops, not US welfare receivers, not Reservation-living Native Americans (to list a variety of groups who are not well off yet not slaves in a traditional sense of the word). I know at this point your reaction is to believe this is an apology. It's not. The TAST was morally vile - just as morally vile as all slavery prior and post. But for some reason the TAST must have some sort of Original Sin quality about it. This is irrational.
 
Well I assume you want academic quotes, not tumblr/twitter quotes from freshmen sociology majors, so in that sense it is a strawman.

Find me a tumblr/twitter quote that substantiates that its poster believes there was no exploitation under feudalism.

Meaningful differences =/= semantic differences. It's like the Capitalization of the Holocaust. It privileges one atrocity versus others because reasons related purely to academic/political power. And we aren't really ever talking about modern slavery anyway right? Like, you know, actual slavery, not sweat shops, not US welfare receivers, not Reservation-living Native Americans (to list a variety of groups who are not well off yet not slaves in a traditional sense of the word). I know at this point your reaction is to believe this is an apology. It's not. The TAST was morally vile - just as morally vile as all slavery prior and post. But for some reason the TAST must have some sort of Original Sin quality about it. This is irrational.

There are meaningful differences between slavery in ancient Rome and contemporary sex trafficking. I could begin to enumerate them, but do I have to?

Establishing a meaningful difference doesn't mean that one is somehow worse than the other. Meaningful differences =/= evaluative differences. The Holocaust isn't the same as chattel slavery. That doesn't mean one is somehow less atrocious than the other.
 
Yeah I don't see what makes it any more modern than the kind of slavery practiced largely by Arabs (and sometimes Vikings and other European groups) for centuries prior to America's colonization. Biggest difference would seem to be that Europeans didn't castrate slaves for use as servants in their harems. It ultimately all boils down to finding the easiest form of power to utilize (manpower) and putting it to use in the production of items beneficial to those in the ruling class. It always makes me laugh when people say slavery and women's disenfranchisement were *necessary* parts of capitalism when their decline in use was always accompanied by superior economic motivators (e.g. skilled labor) and facilitators (industrialization) and greater expansion of capitalist governments worldwide.

EDIT: irt Dak
 
Find me a tumblr/twitter quote that substantiates that its poster believes there was no exploitation under feudalism.

I can't, because no one even mentions feudalism and slavery in the same breath, unless to call Southern slave owners feudal (which are those saying slavery isn't capitalistic), or those saying capitalism is feudal (no understanding of differences in property rights). Type in Slavery by itself and you get a ton of TAST related stuff and/or modern plight of US blacks. Put in Slavery and Capitalism and it's the same. Put in slavery and feudalism and almost nada other than what I mentioned.

There are meaningful differences between slavery in ancient Rome and contemporary sex trafficking. I could begin to enumerate them, but do I have to?

Establishing a meaningful difference doesn't mean that one is somehow worse than the other. Meaningful differences =/= evaluative differences. The Holocaust isn't the same as chattel slavery. That doesn't mean one is somehow less atrocious than the other.

What are the differences to the victims? Sheer number? No, the Holocaust isn't the same as chattel slavery, that wasn't my point. I was pointing out that the Holocaust isn't meaningfully different to other genocides, like chattel slavery wasn't meaningfully different to other slavery. Was the scale larger within a context? Sure. Were particular technological means different? Sure. Was the rhetoric nominallyt different? Sure. And?

While you could fill volumes with differences in contextual differences, my point in saying it's not radically different is in asking which would you rather be the victim of? I can't see any reason for picking one over the other.
 
Jesus. How can't you see the difference between the Holocaust and other genocides or Western chattel slavery and the slavery which preceded it? I'm not entirely surprised considering that it's coming from you, but goddamn is your persistent contrarianism taxing.

It's ok to accept the consensus sometimes. I promise it won't make your dick fall off.
 
Jesus. How can't you see the difference between the Holocaust and other genocides or Western chattel slavery and the slavery which preceded it? I'm not entirely surprised considering that it's coming from you, but goddamn is your persistent contrarianism taxing.

It's ok to accept the consensus sometimes. I promise it won't make your dick fall off.

There are differences, just not difference with a Capital D. There's too much assigning of mystical significance to things. It's a very human thing to do but it's not exactly an academic practice (in terms of the academic ideal anyway; in practice academics are just as prone to it as anyone).
 
What are the differences to the victims? Sheer number? No, the Holocaust isn't the same as chattel slavery, that wasn't my point. I was pointing out that the Holocaust isn't meaningfully different to other genocides, like chattel slavery wasn't meaningfully different to other slavery.

Yes, there are meaningful differences. The subjective experience of the victims does not disqualify evaluative distinctions between these historical phenomena. You're reducing everything to the plight of the individual, once again. No wonder all oppressive phenomena are basically the same; you can't get beyond the solipsism of the subject's experience. Even Kant's not that simplistic about it.
 
I had just said there are differences, or distinctions; particulars. But these don't lend themselves to Capitalization, to perverse enchantment. When I say meaningful I am referring to this imbuing of a difference with mystical significance.
 
I had just said there are differences, or distinctions; particulars. But these don't lend themselves to Capitalization, to perverse enchantment. When I say meaningful I am referring to this imbuing of a difference with mystical significance.

But those differences, distinctions, particulars, don't really matter. That's what you're saying.

Capitalism was an unprecedented revolution in social organization and thought. Forms of oppression under capitalism are meaningfully different than those that preceded them not because of any mystical or "perverse enchantment"--they're different by dint of the very material conditions that enabled them. You're separating the individual experience of being enslaved from the social, political, and economic machinations that inform the development of slavery in various times and places; and you're elevating this experience as evidence that all forms of oppression are basically the same.
 
But those differences, distinctions, particulars, don't really matter. That's what you're saying.

They matter in the sense that there is a technical difference, like it matters how a combustion engine works differently than a steam engine. However, it's still transportation. But we can't even make individual distinctions with oppression, generally speaking, like we can with transportation. We don't have "faster whips" per se, like transportation can be faster. You can't be more dead than dead, re genocide. Does it matter if you die by guillotine? By flechettes? By starvation? Typically we make distinctions on death based on the length of agony between initial effect and death, but on an impartial assessment of instruments of death our rhetoric and the science of death shows loose if any correlation.


Looking ahead to the next quoted section: We have a similar issue with oppression, but the correlation goes from loose to nonexistent. It appears that those controlling the language start with a systematic aversion to all things with are capitalistic (I apologize for any confusion in referring to capitalization), and work backwards, forwards, and sideways to make sense of every other phenomena, all of which are, of course, oppressive.

Capitalism was an unprecedented revolution in social organization and thought. Forms of oppression under capitalism are meaningfully different than those that preceded them not because of any mystical or "perverse enchantment"--they're different by dint of the very material conditions that enabled them. You're separating the individual experience of being enslaved from the social, political, and economic machinations that inform the development of slavery in various times and places; and you're elevating this experience as evidence that all forms of oppression are basically the same.

All revolutions have been unprecedented. That's what makes them revolutions. Separately, it makes no sense to speak of oppression outside of the actual experience of being oppressed. I'm not elevating it, I'm referring to the thing. Social, political, and economic machinations of ------- is what you have without an oppressed person. The concept breaks down without the individual to be oppressed. You've actually managed to, without trying, explain this SJW language that (over-uses) the term "bodies" to me. You're intellectualizing the bodies away.

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Maybe a non-drawn sort of comic example would make my point more clear.

In one panel, a person performing menial labor as a whip cracks overhead. The title reads "Historical Slavery" or whatever. In the other panel, the same image but now there are dark clouds and the labeling text has vibration effects and is emboldened: CAPITALISTIC SLAVERY. Or Chattel Slavery, or whatever you label you wish to mean things were very much so super bad worse.
 
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What's the difference outside of scale/efficiency?

The manner in which it was conducted. All genocides are brutal--of course. I've studied a decent amount on the Rwandan genocide, for example, and it was actually wider in scale, in terms of percentage of victims out of ethnic population and of percentage of perpetrator participation out of total male population, and it was also more efficient than the Holocaust, with some 800,000 killed in just six weeks, so it's not scale and efficiency that make the Holocaust stand out (although it was nonetheless enormous in scale and efficiency, and the word genocide was defined as a result of it).

What is utterly unique about the Holocaust is the industrial aspect, and it would be a mistake to consider this to just be an aesthetic difference. Jews, gypsies, gays, and political dissidents were shipped via train hundreds of miles to what were essentially death processing centers. Once arrived, victims were extracted of any sort of profit that could be taken from them, from their hair, which was used in mattresses and pillows for the German population, to their shoes. Women, children, and elderly, deemed worthless, were sent thereafter immediately to their deaths. The men were given enough food only to be able to work while slowly dying and were compelled to work, whether in a synthetic rubber factory to feed the Wehrmacht like Primo Levi or in the death factory untangling and organizing stiff dead bodies fresh from the gas chambers like a Holocaust victim I once met. And of course even the bodies of the dead were stripped of anything profitable to the war effort and Hitler regime. The Tutsis were killed with machetes outside of their homes. Holocaust victims were filed into a complex, industrial extraction and extermination system as raw commodities to be processed.

Of course, the entire Holocaust wasn't conducted like this. The first million Jewish victims were killed by the Einsatzgruppen and less specialized police task forces via a bullet to the brain, and the use of poisonous gas and crematoriums began in fact with the killing of disabled people, but then, in proper industrial fashion, when more efficient means to produce death were discovered, they were adopted and implemented.
 
Good point, it is rather bizarre that the incredibly advanced Hutu industrial sector didn't use their long-standing education and skills in chemistry, vehicular design, and factory processes as the Germans did, and instead bizarrely opted to simply use machetes, implements which had no relevance to their lives seeing as it was the Tutsis that were uneducated and primarily worked in agriculture. I never thought of it that way.
 
it would be a mistake to consider this to just be an aesthetic difference
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The Tutsis were killed with machetes outside of their homes. Holocaust victims were filed into a complex, industrial extraction and extermination system as raw commodities to be processed.

Well of course it isn't just an aesthetic difference, but it appears that this may be precisely the difference which leads to the special significance placed on it.

Is it that the Nazi systemization of genocide has a uniquely industrial capitalistic aesthetic, which somehow adds an extra layer of horror for those already horrified by capitalism? It seems more inhuman? Getting hacked apart by machetes is in comparison very human, very uncapitalistic, and so not quite so problematic. I project that the visceral reaction to slaughterbot driven genocide might be revealing in this matter.
 
They matter in the sense that there is a technical difference, like it matters how a combustion engine works differently than a steam engine. However, it's still transportation.

And I'm saying that there's something wrong with explaining away the history of transportation by simply saying "people got from one place to another somehow. No use in understanding the social organization that informs how they got from one place to another."

The abstract model or organization that underlies actual practices is inextricable from the practices themselves, and if we want to understand the mindset and values that accompany said practices (whether it's transportation or slavery) then we need to understand the social form as much as we understand the physical movement of bodies (this will come back into play w/ re. to your comment below).

All revolutions have been unprecedented. That's what makes them revolutions.

I agree--but not everything is a revolution.

Separately, it makes no sense to speak of oppression outside of the actual experience of being oppressed.

By way of analogy, it's true that you can't study ant behavior without individual ants; but you can't understand the full evolutionary structure of ant behavior by just looking at the experience of one ant.

I'm not elevating it, I'm referring to the thing. Social, political, and economic machinations of ------- is what you have without an oppressed person. The concept breaks down without the individual to be oppressed. You've actually managed to, without trying, explain this SJW language that (over-uses) the term "bodies" to me. You're intellectualizing the bodies away.

This is a really good point and sets up an actual area of contention that we can discuss. Again I agree, the concept breaks down without individual actors. You can't have the formal structure without the physical components.

I think you're right that my comments and perspective intellectualize the bodies away; in fact, I think that's a really good way to put it, and helpful.

My approach to topics like this is always one of shifting scales. I would never want to discount the experience of inhumanity that lies at the individual level of something like slavery and other forms of oppression. Experiences matter, yes, and they're incredibly helpful for arriving at a set of ethical standards. Even if people disagree on what needs to be done, they can at least agree that something should be done.

This is a question of scale, and different scales offer limited amounts of information. I don't believe that individual experience can ever hope to accurately tell us about the real form and mechanics of systems like slavery, whether in ancient Rome or in the antebellum American South. In pure personal appearance/accounts they might look very similar, but the social forces behind them are very different and just as important for understanding the qualities of enslavement and other phenomena. We can't say that "slavery is slavery" or "oppression is oppression" just because the individual experiences are roughly the same. This premise elides crucial details for understanding how slavery is perpetuated, what values inform it, how those values intersect with other social spheres (religious, economic, political, etc.).

It's true that individual suffering maintains some general continuum of experience, whether at the hands of the Nazis or Hutus; but such experience tells us very little about the social form and institutionalization of oppression.

Is it that the Nazi systemization of genocide has a uniquely industrial capitalistic aesthetic, which somehow adds an extra layer of horror for those already horrified by capitalism? It seems more inhuman? Getting hacked apart by machetes is in comparison very human, very uncapitalistic, and so not quite so problematic. I project that the visceral reaction to slaughterbot driven genocide might be revealing in this matter.

You've inferred some kind of difference in degree, but all BO is suggesting is a difference in kind. Just because techno-capitalist oppression is different than being hacked to death by Hutus doesn't make one worse than the other.
 
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Well of course it isn't just an aesthetic difference, but it appears that this may be precisely the difference which leads to the special significance placed on it.

Is it that the Nazi systemization of genocide has a uniquely industrial capitalistic aesthetic, which somehow adds an extra layer of horror for those already horrified by capitalism? It seems more inhuman? Getting hacked apart by machetes is in comparison very human, very uncapitalistic, and so not quite so problematic. I project that the visceral reaction to slaughterbot driven genocide might be revealing in this matter.

There's a number of reasons why the Holocaust is bestowed such significance, and the mass influx of Jewish academics like your boy Mises into American universities in the 30s and 40s of course plays into this as well. In any case, it wasn't the first German perpetrated genocide of the 20th century to employ concentration camps and industrial technologies (although most victims of the genocide of the Herero were killed by forced exposure), and the genocide of the Armenians also incorporated mass transit in no small part influenced by the German experience in German Southwest Africa. What makes the Holocaust unique isn't its employment industrial technologies; rather that the Holocaust itself was its own industry with its own means of production, supply lines, and bureaucracy, and the accompanying governmental regulations thereof. It's not that it's more inhumane than others. It's the utter de-humanization/commodification of its victims that makes the Holocaust unique.

None of this is to say that the Holocaust is somehow more evil/bad/whatever than the genocide in Rwanda. It would be idiotic to host a dick measuring contest with genocide, and any academic worth their sticks knows better than that.
 
And I'm saying that there's something wrong with explaining away the history of transportation by simply saying "people got from one place to another somehow. No use in understanding the social organization that informs how they got from one place to another."

The abstract model or organization that underlies actual practices is inextricable from the practices themselves, and if we want to understand the mindset and values that accompany said practices (whether it's transportation or slavery) then we need to understand the social form as much as we understand the physical movement of bodies (this will come back into play w/ re. to your comment below).

By way of analogy, it's true that you can't study ant behavior without individual ants; but you can't understand the full evolutionary structure of ant behavior by just looking at the experience of one ant.

I'm probably not clear enough in that I don't have a problem with understanding particulars, or aiming to explain away something, unless it is to explain that there's not a unique capacity in capitalism or in a particular race for slavery. On the contrary, it is only under capitalism and in western countries (or under their influence) that we've seen the abolition of slavery as a practice and a virtue. This is, in fact, unprecedented. Now, I know that the argument is that the practice has merely taken on new, more opaque and complex forms, but I think this rather makes the point about the universality of the practice in terms of human behavior. Capitalism commodities, and humans have proven to be very poor commodities, and so what explicit slavery we still see is at the margins of what has as of yet been resistant to complete commodification (sex). As this arena is more completely commodified, we should expect to see further reductions in slavery. Of course, other problems are and will likely arise, but the point being that capitalism and slavery hold only a historical link, not a necessary one. Which is not the sort of understanding one finds advanced by your average SJW, or by your hostel living barista communist.

This is a really good point and sets up an actual area of contention that we can discuss. Again I agree, the concept breaks down without individual actors. You can't have the formal structure without the physical components.

I think you're right that my comments and perspective intellectualize the bodies away; in fact, I think that's a really good way to put it, and helpful.

My approach to topics like this is always one of shifting scales. I would never want to discount the experience of inhumanity that lies at the individual level of something like slavery and other forms of oppression. Experiences matter, yes, and they're incredibly helpful for arriving at a set of ethical standards. Even if people disagree on what needs to be done, they can at least agree that something should be done.

This is a question of scale, and different scales offer limited amounts of information. I don't believe that individual experience can ever hope to accurately tell us about the real form and mechanics of systems like slavery, whether in ancient Rome or in the antebellum American South. In pure personal appearance/accounts they might look very similar, but the social forces behind them are very different and just as important for understanding the qualities of enslavement and other phenomena. We can't say that "slavery is slavery" or "oppression is oppression" just because the individual experiences are roughly the same. This premise elides crucial details for understanding how slavery is perpetuated, what values inform it, how those values intersect with other social spheres (religious, economic, political, etc.).

It's true that individual suffering maintains some general continuum of experience, whether at the hands of the Nazis or Hutus; but such experience tells us very little about the social form and institutionalization of oppression.

You've inferred some kind of difference in degree, but all BO is suggesting is a difference in kind. Just because techno-capitalist oppression is different than being hacked to death by Hutus doesn't make one worse than the other.

Well then we are in agreement that one isn't worse than the other. That's been my point - that The Holocaust or The Trans-Atlantic Slave Trade have been imbued with additional significance, that they were somehow worse, either because of scale, or because of the support of racial ideologies, etc. I'm picking these two things not because they themselves bother me, but that they are the most salient examples. World War II gets far more attention than WWI, but WWI was arguably more significant in terms of revolutionizing everything about warfare.

Understanding in depth the way that all particular historical factors involved contributed to the atrocities of The Holocaust, or the TAST wind up being misinformative insofar as those factors are seen as purely particular and not outgrowths of longstanding facets of human behavior. This is the fundamental point of contention, I would say, between those which could be divided as "conservative" vs "progressive", or as Sowell labels it, the "Constrained" vs the "Unconstrained" world view. The conflicting visions often lead to differing interpretations of what amounts to a problem, but even when there is agreement on a problem, attempts to jointly approach it and/or prevent recurrence fail to launch.

As an example: I just finished White Trash the other day. After laying out the history of intransigence on all sides of the class divides, and the failure of both the New Deal and the Great Society to uplift the longstanding white poor/rural classes, the author closes the book with several pages of "this is why we need another New Deal", essentially. I saw every reason throughout the book why this is precisely the wrong takeaway.

There's a number of reasons why the Holocaust is bestowed such significance, and the mass influx of Jewish academics like your boy Mises into American universities in the 30s and 40s of course plays into this as well. In any case, it wasn't the first German perpetrated genocide of the 20th century to employ concentration camps and industrial technologies (although most victims of the genocide of the Herero were killed by forced exposure), and the genocide of the Armenians also incorporated mass transit in no small part influenced by the German experience in German Southwest Africa. What makes the Holocaust unique isn't its employment industrial technologies; rather that the Holocaust itself was its own industry with its own means of production, supply lines, and bureaucracy, and the accompanying governmental regulations thereof. It's not that it's more inhumane than others. It's the utter de-humanization/commodification of its victims that makes the Holocaust unique.

None of this is to say that the Holocaust is somehow more evil/bad/whatever than the genocide in Rwanda. It would be idiotic to host a dick measuring contest with genocide, and any academic worth their sticks knows better than that.

Well the Holocaust and the TAST obviously have some salience in the US because of the history and the asylum granted Jewish academics. Again, my point is precisely that while different, or even unique, it's not Different. It is not worse. But one wouldn't know that based on the amount of ink spilled on these vs other atrocities.
 
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