Yes, I do know what subjective means. Do you?
Yes.
Subjective is that which pertains to the individual, to the mind, while objective is that which is outside the mind and separated by the truth that observation, our only connection to what we can consider "objective," is both biased and uncertain.
Ok.
Whe speaking objectively you can never speak in absolutes, as everything we see as objective is altered by perspective, biased observation, and subjective interpretation.
So far you're not showing the unintelligibility of the notion of "objective" truth. Truth is a property of propositions or statements, whereas knowledge is a relation between a subject and the world. Even if one accepts what you say above it only warrants the conclusion that we are
fallible, but not that what it takes for something to be true is dependent upon the whimsy of my or your mind.
To experience the objective directly would require one to "step outside of" their own mind, which in case you didn't know is not all that rational or realistic a concept (as Justin simply pointed out).
This is a point at which I believe philosophers are doing something like trying to fistfight with ghosts. There is no issue for me pertaining to whether or not I can jump out of my own skin and directly compare my own beliefs to something "out there". The concept of objective truth that I'm working with does not require me to grapple with such a point, which I see as ultimately confused anyway. It is unfortunate that I'm using a term that has so much philosophical baggage, but let me now make clear what I really mean.
There is no issue of truth. Why? Because talk of truth does not introduce anything robust into conversation. If it did, then 'It is true that a lot of people wear shoes' would be more informative than 'A lot of people wear shoes.' There is thus nothing to explain, nothing to have an issue about. Talk about correspondence between our beliefs and the world is a useless philosophical abstraction, at least in so far as the notion of correspondence is being used in the way that philosophers have traditionally used it.
Suppose that you have just arrived in a town which you are unfamiliar with. Suppose that you have to get to a certain destination within this town. Suppose that you ask a man who lives in this town for directions to your destination. Now, suppose this man gives you a description of how to get to your destination. This description includes descriptions of how the streets of this town are situated. Suppose that following said description gets you to where you want to go. Not only that, but suppose that it gets you to where you need to go successfully on many occassions. Wouldn't it strike you as ridiculous if the philosopher then interjects and asks "Yeah, but is this
really a true description of how the town is?" By any reasonable standard, there is a right way to describe how the town is and how to get through it, even if one can't satisfy the demand of jumping out of one's own skin to see if one's beliefs correspond to something "out there". By any reasonable standard, a right description of how to get through town is not subjective. It is not strictly dependent upon anybody's thoughts about the town. If you could show me how it is then be my guest.
This means that objective truth can't exist, as the only absolutes are only absolute to the individual and rendered relative when applied objectively.
How does the former point entail that objective truth can't exist? It doesn't seem to follow at all. The fact that I can't jump out of my own mind and compare my beliefs with how things really are does not entail that nothing is objectively true; it only entails that I can't ever have conclusive proof that the statements I make are true. Please, show me how some absolute truth can be rendered relative when applied objectively (whatever the hell that means). If the experiences we have are perfectly consistent both with the supposition that truth is entirely subjective and the supposition that some truths are mind-independent then I see no overwhelming reason to assent to your view.
I consider, and I believe so does the dictionary, truth to be something that is factual - an absolute. Again, the only absolutes are entirely subjective. It is a subjective truth that 1+1=2, as it is only absolutely truth within ones own mind; this is in a sense "belief," and that is something of what truth is, something that one accepts as fact individually (subjectively).
Sorry but that doesn't make much sense. Some truths are mind-dependent, such as the truth that I am feeling an odd sensation in my butt right now indicating that I ought to go take a shit soon. It is a fact that I had said sensation, even though it is not accessible to anybody else, and even though it would not be true if I weren't around to feel said sensation. But mathematical propositions are not made true just in virtue of my thinking that such propositions are true. By any reasonable standard we ought to suppose that said propositions are true, barring any evidence to the contrary. But even if we can't know that said propositions are true beyond doubt, that is only relevant to our epistemic status, not to the status of the notion of truth.
Now, if you consider that which is of highest rationality to be "truth," then you are making a bit of a leap between that gap of uncertainty and certainty.
You're going to have to clarify what you mean by that.
Nothing is certain, but there are degrees of likelyhood based upon observation.
This pertains to knowledge, not to truth.
Even this is fundamentally subjective, but it is rational to use it objectively as it isn't absolute.
What in the world does it mean to use something objectively?
1+1=2 is not a truth, but it is of high enough rationality to be considered "truth." Challenging it would be mostly irrational as there basically nigh infinitely little evidence to show it as not a rational approximate truth. Of course someone could fabricate a subjective truth stating 1+1=3, and it is I think you'll agree very very unlikely that such an individual could show such a thing to be rational, and hence when applied objectively it should be considered "appoximate falsehood" (as it works both ways - there is no absolute truth and there is no untruth). It is basically the difference between "approximately equal" and "equal" in mathematics.
Why is '1+1=2' not a truth? If challenging said proposition would be irrational, then what sort of evidence do you have in order to justifiably assert that it's not a truth?
"There are no facts, only interpretations."
Thanks for the insight. It seems quite odd that you spend a lot of time on this forum trying to prove your points to other people as if you take the propositions you advance as being true, but then you say that there is no such thing as objective truth. All truth is subjective? (whatever that is supposed to mean). Am I suppose to believe that all of these arguments that you put forward in favor of these views are just part of some kind of rhetorical strategy?