T
"Hey, leave that guy alone who thinks Hitler should have taken over the world and eradicated the Jews from the planet. He just has a different opinion than yours."
You seem to think that pure capitalism is inherently the fairest possible way to run an economy, but you are ignoring the fact that people with more assets automatically have an unfair advantage over people with fewer assets.
Partial redistribution of wealth is the only way society can compensate for the lack of opportunity that poor people have relative to rich people.
So let me see what you're implying here:
(1) That because I possess an unfair advantage (presumably because the higher degree of wealth and opportunities available to me are not deserved in any ordinary sense), somebody else who's less advantaged has a legitimate claim against me.
And, not exactly implied by your statement but something I presume you'd agree with:
(2) That the mere existence of an inequality of the sort described above constitutes grounds for state intervention in redistributing wealth to mitigate said inequality.
Alright, so what's your justification for (1)? Suppose I marry a woman who rejected a previous suitor for my better looks, higher intelligence, etc. Presumably I am in no ordinary sense deserving of my "unfair" advantage over this other fellow. But does this "unfair" advantage give him a legitimate reason for complaint against me? I would say no, and I would like to think that nobody has the right to force me to mitigate the inequality here.
What's your justification for (2)? Presumably there are principles of justice and fairness in the acquisition and transfer of wealth. One of these would presumably be that acquisition or transfer of wealth by means of coercion is unjust and thus illegitimate. So, assuming that, say, A's wealth is acquired legitimately, and A's wealth is greater than B's, how does the mere fact of that inequality justify an illegitimate transfer of A's wealth to B, i.e. redistribution through coercion?
Maybe so, but that doesn't entail that coercive means of redistribution are justified. This is where we make a distinction between what is morally right and what constitutes just practices on the part of the state.
My justification for (1):
(P1) In order for someone to have a reasonable opportunity for social and economic advancement, they must be able to afford important services such as health care and education. This opportunity for advancement has a great effect on one's quality of life.
(P2) By P1, someone without a reasonable opportunity for advancement has a greatly lower quality of life than that of someone with this opportunity.
(P3) Although services like education and health care are not affordable to some people of limited means, they are well within the means of the U.S. as a whole if the funding for them is pooled by all U.S. citizens.
(P4) By P3, pooling one's money with all other U.S. citizens to fund services like education and health care does not have a serious adverse effect on one's quality of life, even if one suffers a net loss of money due to the public funding.
(P5) By P2 and P4, the disadvantage to those who suffer a net loss of money due to public funding is far outweighed by the benefit to those who could not otherwise afford the public services.
Also, the case of the woman who dumps the less desirable suitor does not apply to this situation. Even if you assume that the more desirable suitor has an unfair advantage, most people would agree that people have the right to choose their spouses, and for any sort of coercive intervention of that sort to occur would be a much more serious harm (i.e. from not being free to choose one's spouse) than government redistribution of wealth toward certain public services would be to those who suffer a net loss from them.
As to (2), the mere existence of an inequality does not constitute grounds for state redistribution of wealth, because there is always a risk that such redistribution could cause enough of a net loss to the wealthy that it cripples economic freedom and destroys people's hopes of achieving greatness. Redistribution of wealth should only occur if it does not put those values at risk. The United States, however, is a prosperous enough nation that publicly funding education and health care does not put those values at risk.
The moral risk of coercive redistribution toward certain publicly-funded services is far outweighed by the moral risk of leaving a significant portion of the U.S. population without those services.
Are you implying that me saying that is me trying to cover up my own immorality?
What is a moral risk? By my lights, there are no grounds for the state to enforce imperfect duties; such actions violate one's autonomy and are a rank violation of a state's perfect duties. Keep in mind, I'm not necessarily disagreeing with the idea that the wealthy have a moral obligation to helped those less advantaged.
But they won't do it if it's voluntary, because people are fucking assholes. If we can't trust the most respected bankers and CEOs in America with not being greedy fucking pieces of shit, why should we trust them with helping the smaller people. You are fucking stupid.
But they won't do it if it's voluntary, because people are fucking assholes. If we can't trust the most respected bankers and CEOs in America with not being greedy fucking pieces of shit, why should we trust them with helping the smaller people. You are fucking stupid.
Your post amounts to nothing more than "verbal defecation". How do you know no one would do it? No one has any incentive to donate now other than tax breaks because the Govt is already [attempting] to help. Lets say you're right and no one would help the less fortunate. SO FUCKING WHAT? Tough shit. That still isn't a legit arguement for legalizing theft. Personal fucking responsibility.....how many times am I going to have to repeat it?
Didn't you just acknowledge that people with more assets have an unfair advantage? Apparently the basic economic facts I pointed out to you earlier just went right over your head. "Legalising theft", as you call it, is no worse than letting the rich control the economy and keep the poor barely scraping by to survive. THAT is theft - theft of opportunity.
And this "personal responsibility" line is ridiculous, because poor people are not wilfully putting themselves in the situation they're in. Most people who are poor were born poor. It's extremely hard to rise from poverty, and to write off their situation as primarily due to laziness is patently ignorant.
Being able to say "so what, play the fucking hand you are dealt" is not ignorant, it's being a responsible, accept no excuses productive member of society.
It still doesn't matter. The idea that everyone deserves to start with and maintain the same amount of assets is communist at its core. You did not state basic economic facts ,merely economic opinion, other than the fact that yes those with more money [omg amazingly] have better odds of making it.
Being able to say "so what, play the fucking hand you are dealt" is not ignorant, it's being a responsible, accept no excuses productive member of society.
Your insistance that it is ok to play Robin Hood because some people have it harder in life is based off of a lifetime of socialistic brainwashing aimed at turning everyone eventually into wards of the state.
When will you get it through your head that no one deserves shit other than what they earn, regardless of the difficulty of obtaining it versus someone else.
The fact that you find personal responsibility rediculous says everything.So what if poor people were born poor? I have yet to see any kind of convincing evidence that social programs manage to do anymore than keep them alive and functioning, as opposed to allowing them to "go to the next level". The large majority of people on a handout never get off it. Its too easy, its FUCKING FREE, why should they work to be better?
Edit: "theft of opportunity" I got a great laugh out of this one. Why don't you move to a North Korea get an eye opening lesson on what theft of opportunity really is.
I think I agree with P1-P5, but I don't think the argument establishes what you want it to. The argument at the very least would establish that the advantaged have an imperfect duty to pool their resources to help the disadvantaged. But that does not entail that the state has a right to violate its perfect duty not to take the property of its citizens without their consent. Why would considerations of utility override a state's perfect duties towards its citizens? You can certainly make that argument, but surely such an argument would license all sorts of violations of duty. At any rate, I would say that rights and their corresponding perfect duties do not even gain their justification from considerations of utility, so why should I believe that such considerations render them nullified?
Do you really want to make these sorts of arguments about comparative utility? Do you really want to accept the consequences of a view which maintains that the proscription on violating perfect duties is somehow abrogated by considerations of utility? Again, I would say that rights and their corresponding perfect duties do not even gain their justification from considerations of utility, so why should I believe that such considerations render them nullified?
I think you and I are having a fundamental disagreement about what justifies actions, so I don't think all your talk about comparative utility nor my bleating on about rights and duties is going to sway either one of us.
What is a moral risk? By my lights, there are no grounds for the state to enforce imperfect duties; such actions violate one's autonomy and are a rank violation of a state's perfect duties. Keep in mind, I'm not necessarily disagreeing with the idea that the wealthy have a moral obligation to helped those less advantaged.
And this "personal responsibility" line is ridiculous, because poor people are not wilfully putting themselves in the situation they're in. Most people who are poor were born poor. It's extremely hard to rise from poverty, and to write off their situation as primarily due to laziness is patently ignorant.