This is a controversial point, so it's worth discussing.
There's no doubt that we experience "interior" sensations, or brain processes. In a limited sense, we might call these "feelings." And there's no doubt that the cause of music likely induces some kind of effect in a listener; but the entirety of music isn't the sound that is intercepted by a listener.
Music, in any and every case of its creation, is an artistic/aesthetic practice that is rooted in: culture, politics, religion (or lack thereof), economics... power dynamics in general. Even if a listener experiences some form of music as pure sensation, this doesn't subtract (or negate) the music's ideological construction. Music is organized sound. It is organized according to specific principles, aesthetic or otherwise. In this sense, it is inextricable from ideology.
That said, I find it highly doubtful that anyone actually experiences music as only pure sensation/feeling. In fact, it's my opinion that the belief we can experience music as such is an ideological phenomenon. That is, we believe that music can touch some inner place or evoke some inner part of us, beyond language or communicative expression - some pure, essential substance.
I don't believe that this is the case. Music is ubiquitous. Before all of us reached the age where we could recognize music (or the age where we began to have cogent memories), we were exposed to music. We were exposed to the reactions of people around us to music. The music that ends up touching and influencing us does so not because it touches some purity within our selves, but because it registers some kind of ideological value or interest that has been instilled in us over years/decades.