If Mort Divine ruled the world

But here specifically Foucault's history was roundly criticized as almost grossly inaccurate. The attempt to jam square pegs into round holes in on this subject is easily understood as a not-all-that subtle defense of homosexuality, which at the time remained classified as a mental illness.

How was his work "grossly inaccurate"??? If anything, there were questionable moments, but nothing even remotely close to a "grossly inaccurate" study.

Also, the last I remember you linked a SSC piece that criticized Foucault's reference to the ship of fools, which I then corrected.

Ok, I'll grant philosophy of language, but "History of ideas" is incredibly nebulous. We've already seen Foucault's history chops are poor, and that he was never trained as a historian. Rather as a Freudian and in philosophy.

History of ideas is a legitimate discipline. Additionally, this was a major part of Foucault's education and comprised the thesis he wrote to earn his doctorate (i.e. his History of Madness).

https://www.vox.com/2018/6/11/17443198/children-immigrant-families-separated-parents

Citing the legality and/or practicality of what they're doing doesn't convince me it isn't terrorism.

I also don't think it's a bunch of skinheads on power trips or whatnot. I know that a lot of border patrol agents are Latino and Hispanic. This has no bearing on what I'm talking about. It doesn't matter who's doing it; what matters is what's being done.

I don't think policing the border is an easy job, and I don't think it shouldn't be done. I adamantly refuse to believe that it can't be done civilly.
 
How was his work "grossly inaccurate"??? If anything, there were questionable moments, but nothing even remotely close to a "grossly inaccurate" study.

Also, the last I remember you linked a SSC piece that criticized Foucault's reference to the ship of fools, which I then corrected.

History of ideas is a legitimate discipline. Additionally, this was a major part of Foucault's education and comprised the thesis he wrote to earn his doctorate (i.e. his History of Madness).

http://socialdemocracy21stcentury.blogspot.com/2015/04/foucault-on-history-of-madness-critique.html

Here's one rundown of other issues, and then the conclusion:

People in the past were just incredibly ignorant about many things, and their science was weak. They made bad mistakes. We can easily apply this to the history of infectious disease, cancer and all other maladies from which human beings suffer. The fact that different ages classified diseases in different ways from us and had different explanations and cures for them hardly proves that modern scientific medicine is just a “narrative” or “social construct,” or that it has no strong claim to coming closer and closer to objective truth about disease.

I will agree that, in terms of mental disorders, there is some sociopolitical pressure in terms of what deviance is labeled a disorder (homosexuality being a salient example here, and pretty clearly Foucault's axe for grinding). But overall I agree with the quoted conclusion. Foucault's history is bad, and his conclusion predetermined.

Citing the legality and/or practicality of what they're doing doesn't convince me it isn't terrorism.

I also don't think it's a bunch of skinheads on power trips or whatnot. I know that a lot of border patrol agents are Latino and Hispanic. This has no bearing on what I'm talking about. It doesn't matter who's doing it; what matters is what's being done.

I don't think policing the border is an easy job, and I don't think it shouldn't be done. I adamantly refuse to believe that it can't be done civilly.

Well there's can and then there's can. I can train to be an olympic athlete, but I really can't. All resources are finite. Knowledge is imperfect. People are fallible. Rejecting an asylum seeker, or separating people arriving at the border under questionable circumstances is no where near the level incivility that is normally ascribed as "terrorism". There's been a recent study and subsequent swarm of associated writeups about how our perceptions of phenomena attempt to maintain consistency in rates of identification, with the outcome being that regardless of improvement in situations, we simply relabel things to maintain the prior base rates. So we wind up with things like not making eye contact being an aggression, and a slightly-worse than DMV-like experience being "terrorism".
 
http://socialdemocracy21stcentury.blogspot.com/2015/04/foucault-on-history-of-madness-critique.html

Here's one rundown of other issues, and then the conclusion:

I will agree that, in terms of mental disorders, there is some sociopolitical pressure in terms of what deviance is labeled a disorder (homosexuality being a salient example here, and pretty clearly Foucault's axe for grinding). But overall I agree with the quoted conclusion. Foucault's history is bad, and his conclusion predetermined.

I don't know why I keep bothering with this, but you're not doing your homework. Have you ever bothered to look up the rebuttals to Midelfort's work? Hell, I've educated you on Foucault's use of the "ship of fools" motif, yet you still trumpet around like it's an example of his being historically inaccurate. Read up on the criticism surrounding the work and the skeptical reception of it instead of just consuming wholesale the things that reaffirm your suspicions. That's bad scholarship.

Read, for instance, Colin Gordon's close treatment of the "misreadings" of Foucault by historians. Read what he says about the ship of fools:

Foucault, of course, knew and said that the literary ‘ship of fools’ of Brant’s poem and Bosch’s picture were allegories and not transcriptions from contemporary social reality. He did not say that there existed medieval social practices resembling a literal actualization of Brant’s or Bosch’s image: none of the evidence he presents is taken as documenting the existence of boats entirely occupied or manned by the insane, navigating seas or rivers of Europe at will or at random. What Foucault is saying, by saying that there were actual ships of fools in the Middle Ages, is that some mad people travelled, for various reasons, in boats along European rivers in the course of the Middle Ages. Some were being got rid of by towns which had expelled them, or sent back to their own; others (very probably, to judge from Foucault’s data, the most numerous category) were pilgrims journeying to shrines reputed to cure madness.

Midelfort thinks that Foucault wildly over-estimates the former categories of insane voyagers, since the three individual cases of riverborne transportations which Foucault cites apparently turn out to be the only ones ever known to have occurred. Foucault certainly seems to have thought there were more, and that his handful of known cases were samples of a more frequent practice, though (to reiterate a point) he does not say that it was a systematic or universal one, and in the case of Nuremberg he suggests it was relatively short-lived. On Foucault’s own showing, it is manifestly dubious exactly how ‘often’ Rhineland cities ‘must’ have found insane passengers disembarking on their quays. This ‘must’ is probably one of the kind which actually (rather as with Megill’s ‘sans doute’) conveys a less than apodictic certainty; there are many notes of tentativeness in the course of these few pages.

If Midelfort is right and (as every subsequent commentator appears to take for granted) his archival searches conclusive and exhaustive, then Foucault made a wong inference, and, incidentally but interestingly, the secondary nineteenth-century sources that Foucault used here would seem to have been more impressively thorough and exhaustive than Foucault himself possibly supposed.

Where Foucault is far less evidently off-target is on the matter of his other category of data, the pilgrimages of the insane, the ‘highly symbolic’ boats of mad persons en route to the indubitably real and frequented pilgrimage shrines of Larchant, Gournay, Besançon and Gheel. One may indeed concede to Midelfort that they did not go alone, or unsupervised, or only by river, or only in the Middle Ages. Still, they did go, they were real, and they seem to have been quite numerous. Midelfort’s 1980 paper does at one point—as LaCapra says—advert to their existence, but he unfortunately fails there to advert to any possible connection between their existence and Foucault’s text.

It may reasonably be said that Foucault, writing at the extreme initial margin of his theme and period, elaborates his material with a certain degree of poetic licence, at times blurring together the possible symbolic meanings of material practices and cultural motifs. Maher and Maher show how this led to enthusiastically over-the-top retellings of his story by anti-psychiatric readers, some of which Maher and Maher proceed to read back into Foucault himself (1982:751 ff.). Foucault’s actual ships of fools are (a rhetorician would say) a slightly hyperbolic usage of the latter term. But this does not mean, as Megill contends, that Foucault’s text is in some sense being radically ambiguous about the mad in the Middle Ages. Foucault was not saying something ambiguous, he was saying that something was ambiguous, or ‘liminal’: namely, the cultural and symbolic status of madness in late medieval society.


a slightly-worse than DMV-like experience being "terrorism".

I sometimes forget how differently you and I see things. Let's not talk about this anymore.
 
I don't know why I keep bothering with this, but you're not doing your homework. Have you ever bothered to look up the rebuttals to Midelfort's work? Hell, I've educated you on Foucault's use of the "ship of fools" motif, yet you still trumpet around like it's an example of his being historically inaccurate. Read up on the criticism surrounding the work and the skeptical reception of it instead of just consuming wholesale the things that reaffirm your suspicions. That's bad scholarship.

Read, for instance, Colin Gordon's close treatment of the "misreadings" of Foucault by historians. Read what he says about the ship of fools:

Well by all accounts Gordon is an apologist.

Gary Gutting is charitable to Foucault:
http://users.clas.ufl.edu/burt/I'mnotcrazy!/foucaultmadness.pdf

What, then, should we conclude about what we might now, not entirely facetiously, describe as Foucault's Die Phdnomenologie des kranken Geistes. Granted, as I have just been arguing, that it is history, is it good or bad history? The easy answer is that it is good idealist history but bad empiricist history. That, however, is too easy, since a schema of historical interpretation may be so empirically deficient that even its most ingenious and exciting speculations are not worth pursuing. (In the same way, an empirically impeccable account may be so devoid of interpretative interest as to be hardly worth an historian's yawn.)
This, I think, is as far as philosophical kibitzing can take the discussion of Foucault's history of madness. I have argued that there is no good reason to place Histoire de la folie entirely outside the domain of history, immune to the critical norms of historiography. I have also maintained that neither of the two most important historical critiques of Foucault shows that his work is bad history. Midelfort's apparently decisive criticisms are mostly based on misunderstandings of Foucault's views. Porter's critique of Foucault's central views on confinement raises an important empirical challenge, but does not, in itself, undermine the interpretative power of Foucault's idealist history. So far there have been no decisive tests of the fruitfulness of Foucault's complex interpretative framework. What is still needed, it seems to me, is an assessment of his overall picture of Classical madness through detailed deployments of its specific interpretative categories. Is, for example, Jan Goldstein right in her suggestion that historians of the Enlightenment should pay more attention to Foucault's idea of a tension in the Classical experience of madness between man as a juridical subject and man as a social being? How much explanatory power is there in Foucault's claim that Classical confinement involved a reduction of all sexual offenses to the norms of bourgeois morality? What level of understanding can we reach by developing his account of the religious significance of Classical madness? To what extent is the nature of nineteenth-century psychiatry illuminated by thinking of it as constructed from the polar Classical conceptions of madness as innocent animality and as moral fault? The issue of Foucault's status as a historian of madness should remain open until historians have posed and answered questions such as these.

What I take away from this is maybe he had a couple of interesting observations, but engaged in a lot of unnecessary an unempirical writing and rhetoric in the process. That was my take after reading Madness more or less anyway.

On Midelfort separately, it looks like a motte-and-bailey tactic of argument https://rationalwiki.org/wiki/Motte_and_bailey. Foucault advances strong position with scant or false evidence, is called on it, and then he (or apologists) retreats to only talking of ideas.
 
Well by all accounts Gordon is an apologist.

Gary Gutting is charitable to Foucault:
http://users.clas.ufl.edu/burt/I'mnotcrazy!/foucaultmadness.pdf

By your account Gordon is an apologist. All Gutting says is that he bucks the consensus.

What I take away from this is maybe he had a couple of interesting observations, but engaged in a lot of unnecessary an unempirical writing and rhetoric in the process. That was my take after reading Madness more or less anyway.

Foucault's writings aren't empirical in the first place. He's only tangentially referring to the actual treatment of real bodies in the real world. His primary focus is the representation of ideas--hence "historian of ideas." The fact that Foucault made inferences based on his readings of certain texts are just that: inferences. Inferences can be incorrect, but they're not the primary substance of an argument. When Foucault writes about the Ship of Fools, he mentions a few instances in which the literary trope appears to have become reality, and suggests that it may have happened even more. People like Midelfort criticize this comment as Foucault arguing that "ships of fools" were a common, actual institutional practice. But this isn't what Foucault is saying at all. It's not up for debate. Read the prose, it's not what he says. He never claims it.

All Foucault says is that it's likely there were more instances than the three or so documented cases. Whether that's true or not has no bearing on his argument, because that's not what he's interested in. He's interested in what the representation (i.e. discursive) of ideas says about them. That's the philosopher and critical theorist in him. If you don't see that as legitimate or valuable, then that's fine. But you're still misrepresenting him.
 
By your account Gordon is an apologist. All Gutting says is that he bucks the consensus.

Foucault's writings aren't empirical in the first place. He's only tangentially referring to the actual treatment of real bodies in the real world. His primary focus is the representation of ideas--hence "historian of ideas." The fact that Foucault made inferences based on his readings of certain texts are just that: inferences. Inferences can be incorrect, but they're not the primary substance of an argument. When Foucault writes about the Ship of Fools, he mentions a few instances in which the literary trope appears to have become reality, and suggests that it may have happened even more. People like Midelfort criticize this comment as Foucault arguing that "ships of fools" were a common, actual institutional practice. But this isn't what Foucault is saying at all. It's not up for debate. Read the prose, it's not what he says. He never claims it.

All Foucault says is that it's likely there were more instances than the three or so documented cases. Whether that's true or not has no bearing on his argument, because that's not what he's interested in. He's interested in what the representation (i.e. discursive) of ideas says about them. That's the philosopher and critical theorist in him. If you don't see that as legitimate or valuable, then that's fine. But you're still misrepresenting him.

re: talking about real bodies in the real world. Well this is where this runs into a problem. As per Gutting, Foucault is engaging in idealistic history, which as far as I'm concerned isn't in the realm of serious thought. Of course, I would define serious thought as such that is practically/empirically applicable and/or referable. Everything else falls under what I would call privileged pasttimes; western civilization is rich enough to afford people plenty of time for play, whether physical or cognitive. Not that that doesn't make it valuable in some way, because not everything can be serious. The problem is when things that are play are taken too seriously. Unfortunately, as society becomes richer this becomes an increasing problem. I'm willing to accept Gutting's characterization of Foucault's work (which remains on my shelf) while not allowing any slack due to the characterization. My perspective is that people like Midelfort have an issue with Foucault because Foucault's play transgressed (even if slightly) into a serious subject (History).
 
re: talking about real bodies in the real world. Well this is where this runs into a problem. As per Gutting, Foucault is engaging in idealistic history, which as far as I'm concerned isn't in the realm of serious thought. Of course, I would define serious thought as such that is practically/empirically applicable and/or referable. Everything else falls under what I would call privileged pasttimes; western civilization is rich enough to afford people plenty of time for play, whether physical or cognitive. Not that that doesn't make it valuable in some way, because not everything can be serious. The problem is when things that are play are taken too seriously. Unfortunately, as society becomes richer this becomes an increasing problem. I'm willing to accept Gutting's characterization of Foucault's work (which remains on my shelf) while not allowing any slack due to the characterization. My perspective is that people like Midelfort have an issue with Foucault because Foucault's play transgressed (even if slightly) into a serious subject (History).

I don't see it as a problem, and I suppose this is where we'll part ways.

"Idealistic history"--i.e. the history of ideas--is a serious field of thought, but it's become fashionable among certain circles to belittle it as an amusing pasttime. Many historians see Foucault's approach as an affront because he asked a question that no one else wanted to ask.

Historians typically look for archival or primary source evidence and assess the past state of the actual world based on that evidence. Foucault wasn't as interested in whether such evidence pointed to real-world activities, but in why things were represented the way they were.

I won't try to convince you that this is a legitimate inquiry because I know you won't agree. But this is what Foucault did, and it's what thinkers like Chomsky and Searle found impressive about his work. He realized that discursive representations weren't disinterested, passive, innocent depictions of real-world ideas, persons, and events. Representations impact the way that people think about history. That's what Foucault studied, and it's a fascinating and important field.
 
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I must say, quite an interesting take...

The media are motivated primarily by getting the largest audience possible. This leads to a skewed conception about which controversial perspectives deserve airtime, and what “both sides” of an issue are. How often do you see controversial but well-informed intellectuals like Noam Chomsky and Martha Nussbaum on television? Meanwhile, the former child-star Kirk Cameron appears on television to explain that we should not believe in evolutionary theory unless biologists can produce a “crocoduck” as evidence. No wonder we are experiencing what Marcuse described as “the systematic moronization of children and adults alike by publicity and propaganda.”

Marcuse was insightful in diagnosing the problems, but part of the solution he advocated was suppressing right-wing perspectives. I believe that this is immoral (in part because it would be impossible to do without the exercise of terror) and impractical (given that the internet was actually invented to provide an unblockable information network). Instead, I suggest that we could take a big step forward by distinguishing free speech from just access. Access to the general public, granted by institutions like television networks, newspapers, magazines, and university lectures, is a finite resource. Justice requires that, like any finite good, institutional access should be apportioned based on merit and on what benefits the community as a whole.

There is a clear line between censoring someone and refusing to provide them with institutional resources for disseminating their ideas. When Nathaniel Abraham was fired in 2004 from his position at Woods Hole Oceanographic Institute because he admitted to his employer that he did not believe in evolution, it was not a case of censorship of an unpopular opinion. Abraham thinks that he knows better than other scientists (and better than other Christians, like Pope Francis, who reminded the faithful that God is not “a magician, with a magic wand”). Abraham has every right to express his ignorant opinion to any audience that is credulous enough to listen. However, Abraham does not have a right to a share of the intellectual capital that comes from being associated with a prestigious scientific institution like Woods Hole.

Similarly, the top colleges and universities that invite Charles Murray to share his junk science defenses of innate racial differences in intelligence (including Columbia and New York University) are not promoting fair and balanced discourse. For these prestigious institutions to deny Murray an audience would be for them to exercise their fiduciary responsibility as the gatekeepers of rational discourse. We have actually seen a good illustration of what I mean by “just access” in ABC’s courageous decision to cancel “Roseanne,” its highest-rated show. Starring on a television show is a privilege, not a right. Roseanne compared a black person to an ape. Allowing a show named after her to remain on the air would not be impartiality; it would be tacitly endorsing the racist fantasy that her views are part of reasonable mainstream debate.

https://www.nytimes.com/2018/06/25/...n=latest&contentPlacement=2&pgtype=collection
 
No, see, you just want to flatten all speech. I think that's stupid.

Of course you do. So did Repubs a mere couple of years ago. It's all a matter of expediency and power.

I'll at least grant you've been anti-"rights" as a concept for some time. But it's now becoming politically salient.
 
thought it was agreed Murray's work on IQ is solid but his application to social and political theory is horseshit?

but yeah, nothing new with that NYT piece...
 
thought it was agreed Murray's work on IQ is solid but his application to social and political theory is horseshit?

but yeah, nothing new with that NYT piece...

You can't separate IQ from application. Maybe Murray is misapplying it, but it can't be inapplicable. But yeah, the NYT, like the WAPO, has more or less contracted TDS.
 
Of course you do. So did Repubs a mere couple of years ago. It's all a matter of expediency and power.

I'll at least grant you've been anti-"rights" as a concept for some time. But it's now becoming politically salient.

I think it's becoming politically salient to seriously consider what opinions are worth allowing into a public forum. An "anything goes" mentality is anti-developmental and regressive. I don't care if it's smug or elitist; the opposite is disorganized and dangerous. It doesn't have anything to do with rights (since no one has a right to a media platform) and everything to do with the consilience of modern society and advancement.

I was reading through the comments on Outside In the other day (which seems to have stalled), and the last one genuinely asks, if certain peoples are less intelligent than Euro-American whites, why shouldn't those peoples be enslaved? These kinds of opinions are increasingly finding their way into the public sphere and are being given media access. I don't think it's unreasonable or irrational to say that institutions should deny access to those who want to promote such ideas. There's simply no way that enslavement can be an ethical or net-positive idea, regardless of the cultural developments that occurred during times of slavery. Those eras are responsible for the discontent of modern times, and it's everyone's responsibility to avoid such discontent moving forward.

The white men who feel their opinions are being stamped out won't suffer socioeconomic disenfranchisement in the centuries to come because of this stamping out (although they may certainly suffer due to other socioeconomic issues). Their situation is qualitatively different from what blacks have endured for centuries. It's completely incorrect to claim their suffering is on the same level; but this is what we're moving toward, and it's because of what social media and discourse deem admissible.
 
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I think it's becoming politically salient to seriously consider what opinions are worth allowing into a public forum. An "anything goes" mentality is anti-developmental and regressive. I don't care if it's smug or elitist; the opposite is disorganized and dangerous. It doesn't have anything to do with rights (since no one has a right to a media platform) and everything to do with the consilience of modern society and advancement.

From a purely idealistic standpoint, sure. But in reality it may be just as dangerous to start a tyranny on thought instead of allowing people of dissenting opinions to ask questions. I know it's practically a cliche, but this is a slippery slope, and a precipitous one at that.

I was reading through the comments on Outside In the other day (which seems to have stalled), and the last one genuinely asks, if certain peoples are less intelligent than Euro-American whites, why shouldn't those peoples be enslaved? These kinds of opinions are increasingly finding their way into the public sphere and are being given media access. I don't think it's unreasonable or irrational to say that institutions should deny access to those who want to promote such ideas. There's simply no way that enslavement can be an ethical or net-positive idea, regardless of the cultural developments that occurred during times of slavery. Those eras are responsible for the discontent of modern times, and it's everyone's responsibility to avoid such discontent moving forward.

Sounds kind of like a troll to me, but I see your point. However consider this more ambiguous example in the NYT article:
NYT said:
To award space in a campus lecture hall to someone like Peterson who says that feminists “have an unconscious wish for brutal male domination,”

While this may not be an overly productive idea, it is certainly more eligible for discussion than the idea of enslaving idiot races. People with an inferiority complex may strive with a bit too much ambition to oust the status quo. This idea is worth considering in the increasingly divisive public sphere in my opinion, but it may not be in yours. Determining the boundaries of what is acceptably controversial and what is not is a rather nebulous pursuit, and I prefer to err on the side of free expression.

The white men who feel their opinions are being stamped out won't suffer socioeconomic disenfranchisement in the centuries to come because of this stamping out (although they may certainly suffer due to other socioeconomic issues). Their situation is qualitatively different from what blacks have endured for centuries. It's completely incorrect to claim their suffering is on the same level; but this is what we're moving toward, and it's because of what social media and discourse deem admissible.

In one paragraph you say that we should stamp out discontent, but in this one you imply that some people should just shut up and deal with it. The discontentedness of white people in the US has become palpable enough to elect a provocateur as president. Most of these people arent benefactors of a past aristocracy, and they are not required to suffer the same hardships of people in the past to feel slighted.

Social change has never been a chess match between intellectuals. Right now in the US at least, we see a divide between the white working class (represented by themselves the the symbolic election of Trump) and the minority populations (represented by themselves and by "leftists" and college youth). Despite an increased emphasis on education, both sides have an extremely large and influential portion of uneducated representatives, all full of ideas and situational biases. What you propose is intellectually similar to that of which you reject: the enslavement of less intelligent individuals.
 
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