But the frontal lobe does both conscious thought and inhibition. That's why I don't think there's a "second agency." The same part of the brain that allows us to consciously analyze things is the same part that inhibits our own desires from becoming conscious or from becoming actions. I don't know if this was understood in his time, though.
I don't think the functions are agencies, but I think the logical consequences of these functions is a multiplicity of agencies that constitute subjectivity (i.e. the subject is always split).
The most glaring problem with Freud is not necessarily any particular idea, but that his ideas are informed almost exclusively by case studies, which were selected from an extremely limited slice of one particular culture. To be more concise: His methodology was incredibly flawed.
I guess an area I differ from him is that I see this subconscious "second agency" as only a latent, heuristic form of the conscious mind. I think consciousness is only really an extended function of the emotional and logical processes that animal minds normally operate under. In other words, it's a quicker, more lucid, more nuanced form of the subconscious processes.
Freud was interested in studying single subjects closely - and among them (i.e. bourgeois upper/upper-middle class) he detected similar phenomena.
I also find it funny that you think Freud complicates things. His conclusions are complex, but I think they're necessarily complex.
Well, I don't know if I agree with this; but okay then. If anything, I think that consciousness tends to inhibit non-conscious biological processes.
I also find it funny that you think Freud complicates things. His conclusions are complex, but I think they're necessarily complex.
He detected similar phenomena based on his bias confirmation within an extremely limited slice of a limited slice.
His primary source were extremely well off Victorian women who didn't mind going to see a shrink. Given that the Victorian period was supposedly very sexually repressive, I'll just allow that sexual repression was present. But that doesn't mean it can necessarily be connected to anything else, nor can it be extrapolated wider. I'm not discounting intuition as completely useless, but Freud was content to reside entirely within the echo chamber of his own mind.
Based on what I could read before stopping, he seems to want to make conclusions more complex in order to congratulate himself intellectually. He spends a ridiculous amount of time trying to justify himself, rather than just presenting the data and his theory. When two people present him with dreams that conflict with his idea that dreams are wish fulfillments, rather than inquiring deeper into their lives, he simply asserts that they had the dreams because they wanted him to be wrong. One of those people happened to be a classmate of his, and he said that the classmate could have been harboring jealousy for years for Freud being at the top of the class. He doesn't consider the possibility that there may have not been jealousy in the first place and that even if there was, it could have been dealt with already.
Edit:
We're not always conscious of our own conscious or subconscious processes. That doesn't mean it's another process altogether, just the same process without the fact of it happening never getting around to being conscious. For example, when someone experiences a traumatic event, they'll consciously block it out. Afterwards, they won't remember it, but that doesn't mean something other than their ordinary consciousness blocked it out, just that because it was blocked out, they're not aware of it.
First: that's incorrect (and the comparison to Rand is unjustified).
Second: so what if he did operate within his own mind? He was brilliant.
What is incorrect? And how is a comparison to Rand unjustified? They both created personal echo chambers to support their problematic theories and viciously attacked anyone who graced their circle who refused to toe the line entirely.