Blind Guardian
Member
What people did Cain and Set have their children with? Incredible that such a basic flaws can be find. We all know that it couldn't have been Eve, since incest can't populate a civilization. What the fuck Dakryn?!
It really depends on your definition of "original sin." I would think it could refer to the capability of people to sin.
It was not meant to identify wealth with evil. Satan was attempting to get Jesus to sin (by breaking the 1st Commandment), and offering a reward to him for doing so.
As stated earlier, Jesus never advocated breaking Torah. The Pharisees and Sadducees (the religious leaders), placed higher value on teachings that many times contradicted Torah. He was trying to overturn the "norm", to bring Israel back to the original order the Father set down. Roughly half of Jesus' conversations/teachings begin with a scripture reference from the OT. I could quote all these instances but it would take pages.
I'm not a Christian but *eyeroll*
I disagree. From a literary standpoint, I think that it completely identifies wealth with evil. The fact that Satan is bribing Christ with the possibility of material wealth establishes it as an indecent acquisition (I believe).
Christ would never teach that the pursuit of worldly goods or wealth is necessary for or indicative of salvation (which works well, since he preaches to the poor)
the wealth of Christians lies in Heaven, in the wealth they will achieve in an eternity with God.
The worldly, material paradise offered by Satan is used symbolically as a means to deprive human beings of salvation. Since the Pharisees and the Jewish high priests possess vast amounts of wealth, they're symbolically equated with evil and sin (having already been tempted by Satan).
But Jesus even uses OT references in his accusations against the Jews. He references Isaiah when he recites the Parable of the Wicked Husbandmen, using the metaphor of the vineyard (which had been used before to symbolize Israel), in order to turn blame against the Jews.
I don't think Christ advocated "breaking Torah" either; but I do think he condemned retribution, which was a commonly accepted tenet of Hebrew culture. The OT says nothing against retribution, and it became a socially accepted practice. Furthermore, the fact that God Himself took part in acts of vengeance against the Hebrews demonstrates that retribution was part of a divine order of things. Christ seeks to supplant this with pacifism.
So, who did the people he mentioned have sex with?
and the days of Adam after he begat Seth were eight hundred years: and he begat sons and daughters.
Although it is a picture of the common "temptations", my original interpretation is true.