Dak
mentat
But that harm isn't intentional. That's the kicker for me.
It's not intentionally helpful either. It's done for personal benefit.
But that harm isn't intentional. That's the kicker for me.
It's not intentionally helpful either. It's done for personal benefit.
In general, conservatives prefer cultural to materialist analyses of human behavior. For years, for instance, conservatives have insisted that economic distress does not cause jihadist terror. The real source, they insist, is Islamic culture. For decades, they’ve argued that economic distress does not cause unwed pregnancy and drug addiction among African Americans. The real explanation lies with inner city black culture. Given those precedents, you would think conservatives would embrace a cultural rather than economic explanation for Trump’s appeal, especially when the evidence points so strongly in that direction. But when it’s whites acting badly, not blacks or Muslims, suddenly economic distress matters a great deal.
He's noting a phenomenon by which conservative thought often reduces controversial issues in specifically non-white communities to some kind of inherent, or core, cultural logic:
The author is saying that when it comes to white rural America, conservatives appeal to economics as an explanation for their behavior and downtrodden state; but when it comes to non-white communities, they claim that economics has nothing to do with it. It's a double standard.
The author of this article isn't voicing an opinion on Trump supporters - whether they're bigots or not, it doesn't matter here. He isn't making a claim one way or another. He's noting a phenomenon by which conservative thought often reduces controversial issues in specifically non-white communities to some kind of inherent, or core, cultural logic: i.e. Islam is an inherently violent religion, or black culture is inherently prone to laziness and drug addiction. The author is suggesting that, according to conservative theorists, it doesn't matter whether the historical economic conditions of Muslims or American blacks had been different - these groups would have turned out the same.
However, when it comes to white rural Americans, specifically the blue-collar communities that supported Trump, conservatives insist that economics is the core reason for their disparity, not to mention their racism, opioid addiction, etc. The author is saying that when it comes to white rural America, conservatives appeal to economics as an explanation for their behavior and downtrodden state; but when it comes to non-white communities, they claim that economics has nothing to do with it. It's a double standard.
And the implication by the author is not an implicit xenophobic/racial/ethnic/religious bias/prejudice/hatred etc?
Isn't the opoid addiction a north eastern/suburban issue more than rural? I thought rural was meth for whitey
Different standards are often appropriate for apples and oranges.
It was just an example.
But the implication, which is implicit, is distinct from the argument, which is explicit.
It's a combination of both cultural and economic in all 3 cases to varying degrees. I think it's roughly like this:The author of this article isn't voicing an opinion on Trump supporters - whether they're bigots or not, it doesn't matter here. He isn't making a claim one way or another. He's noting a phenomenon by which conservative thought often reduces controversial issues in specifically non-white communities to some kind of inherent, or core, cultural logic: i.e. Islam is an inherently violent religion, or black culture is inherently prone to laziness and drug addiction. The author is suggesting that, according to conservative theorists, it doesn't matter whether the historical economic conditions of Muslims or American blacks had been different - these groups would have turned out the same.
However, when it comes to white rural Americans, specifically the blue-collar communities that supported Trump, conservatives insist that economics is the core reason for their disparity, not to mention their racism, opioid addiction, etc. The author is saying that when it comes to white rural America, conservatives appeal to economics as an explanation for their behavior and downtrodden state; but when it comes to non-white communities, they claim that economics has nothing to do with it. It's a double standard.
Quit being a serious Sam, was just trying to make sure I still knew about the....forgotten man?
Interesting, we devise two different arguments out of that piece
A minority of Caucasians in a subregion with different religions see an increase in meth usage and suicides when the economy changed to aid those on the coasts.
ISIS/sectarian/tribal violence erupt anywhere in the middle east (Islam) there isn't a brutal military government made up of a superior tribe/sector, while sitting on the richest resource in the history of the world.
If anything, you infer an argument; but you shouldn't have to. The argument is explicit; and the author is suggesting that most conservatives strive to explain white bigotry and laziness by appealing to economic disparity, while economic disparity has no impact on black culture.
Aug: 90 eco 10 cul
I didn't know the popular conservative position on black unemployment/unwed pregnancies was "it's the inner city black culture" and if it is, it's definitely not something I've seen many conservatives say. I have seen them say that inner city black culture is now acting as a barrier to success, but that culture is assumed to be a product of the welfare state and the war on poverty and thus not the main issue.
All the diagnostics I've seen almost entirely point to the war on poverty and the welfare state.